2006 CPL EXAM 1

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Instructor Copy Page 1 of 28

HIGHER EDUCATION DIVISION

Examinations: Teaching Period: 4 2006 Paper 2 of 2

Faculty: Engineering & Industrial Sciences Campus: Hawthorn

Subject Code(s): HES1905

Full Subject Title: Commercial Pilot Licence Pt 2

STUDENTS NAME: _____________________________________ ID No: ______________________

Duration: 3 hours Percentage of overall assessment

covered by this paper: 30%

Reading Time: 15 minutes

Total marks on this paper 104 Number of pages in this paper (inc.

this page):

28

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Materials Allowed:

Non-Programmable CalculatorAIP and PCA Chart

Answering Requirements:

This paper is presented in three parts:Part A Aircraft General KnowledgePart B AerodynamicsPart C Meteorology

Each Part should require approximately one hour to complete. Each part is worth 1/3 of the total marks for thispaper or 10% of the overall assessment of this subject.

Answer all questions.

The answers to all questions should be entered in the workbook provided, showing all calculations and

assumptions where appropriate.

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INSTRUCTOR COPY Page 2 of 35

PART A HUMAN FACTORSPart A of this examination consists of 28 questions. Each question is worth 1mark, giving a total possible score of 28 marks for Part A.

Q 1.

The part of the retina which has the worst visual acuity is

a. the fovea, due to the greatest concentration of conesb. the blind spot, due to least concentration of rodsc. the fovea, due to the greatest concentration of rodsd. the optic spot, due to the greatest concentration of rods and cones

Q 2.

The fact that the concentration of cones is greatest at the fovea, whilethe rods are distributed over the whole of the retina means that

a. Night vision is best achieved by looking directly at the objectb. Colour sensitivity is best away from the foveac. At night the eye effectively has two blind spotsd. None of the above are correct

Q 3.

The approximate time of useful consciousness for an average person

engaged in moderate activity, following an oxygen supply failure at40,000 ft will be

a. 45 secondsb. 150 secondsc. 20 secondsd. 60 seconds

Q 4.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the alleviation of

the effects of hypoxia at cabin altitudes above 10,000 ft without the useof supplemental oxygen?

a. the effects cannot be alleviatedb. mild exercise accompanied by regular breathingc. slow, deep breathingd. rapid shallow breathing

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Q 5.

Flying while suffering from a head cold increases the risk of

a. Hypoxiab. Pressure vertigo

c. Carbon monoxide poisoningd. Decompression sickness

Q 6.

If, during flight in non-VMC, you sense a descending turn to the left, themost important action to take is to

a. immediately apply opposing control inputs to that which has beensensed

b. Trust your body sensations implicitly

c. keep your head still to reduce any disorientating sensationsd. Trust your instruments implicitly

Q 7.

Loss of hearing due to the ageing process is termed

a. Presbycusisb. Presbyopiac. Presbytinnitusd. Presbyterianism

Q 8.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the effectsresulting from exposure over many years to aircraft noise?

a. Some loss of hearing may occur but it will last for only a few minutesafter each exposure.

b. Some loss of hearing may occur but total recovery will eventually takeplace.

c. Some loss of hearing may occur but full recovery may never eventuate.

d. Some loss of hearing may occur but partial recovery will eventuallytake place.

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Q 9.

A pilot showing the symptoms of dizziness, tingling at the fingertips andblurred vision may be suffering from

a. hyperventilation

b. hypoxiac. hypertensiond. hyperthermia

Q 10.

Alcohol can be detected in the blood after ingestion of alcohol after

a. 8 hoursb. 10 hoursc. 24 hours

d. 14 hourse. 48 hours

Q 11.

The part of the retina which has the greatest visual acuity

a. The fovea, due to the greatest concentration of conesb. The blind spot, due to the least concentration of rods.c. The fovea, due to the greatest concentration of rods.d. The optic spot, due to the greatest concentration of rods and cones.

Q 12.

Visual acuity decreases away from the fovea because

a. The number of rods decreaseb. The number of cones decreasec. The number of cones increased. The number of rods increase

Q 13.

How long is needed for full dark adaptation?

a. 5-10 minb. 20-30 minc. 10-20 mind. 35-45 min

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Q 14.

The eye moves in what are termed saccades (jerks and rests). Invisual searching, a saccade/rest cycle usually occupies roughly

a. 1.0 seconds

b. 0.3 secondsc. 2.0 secondsd. 3.0 seconds

Q 15.

The ideal pilot in an emergency is

a. P+G+b. P-G-c. P-G+

d. P+G-

Q 16.

What percentage of aircraft accidents have been deemed to have beendirectly attributed to human factors-related related causes?

a. 80-90%b. 25-30%c. 40-50%d. 75%

Q 17.

An untrained pilot in IMC engaged in a prolonged constant bank and ina balanced turn, will perceive himself to be flying

a. At a constant angle of bankb. Straight and Levelc. Pitched downd. In a turn in the opposite direction

Q 18.

The oxygen demand of muscles during activity increases by a factor of-

a. 20b. 2c. 10d. 7

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Q 19.

What is the approximate time of useful consciousness for an averagepilot engaged in moderate activity at 25,000 feet?

a. 30 sec

b. 1 minc. 2 mind. 15 sece. 45 sec

Q 20.

With age, the lens of the eye generally becomes

a. Too looseb. Too elastic

c. Too stiffd. Cracked

Q 21.

The part of the eye which bends incoming light the most is

a. The lensb. The corneac. The irisd. The pupile. The tympanic membrane

Q 22.

On approach to a long thin runway, with rising terrain towards thethreshold will provide which of the following apparent visual effects

a. No effect, a normal approach path will be experiencedb. Undershootingc. Overshoot, then undershoot when on short final

d. Overshooting

Q 23.

A pilot should not fly with a common cold. What drug causes sideeffects related to the common cold?

a. Pseudo-ephedrine, causing heart weakness at high altitudesb. Anti-histamines, causing drowsinessc. Antibiotics, causing diarrhoead. Tranquilizers, increases pilot fatigue

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Q 24.

A good Captain will encourage the Co-pilot to use communicationstyles which are

a. Aggressive and supportive

b. Assertive and supportivec. Assertive and submissived. Supportive and submissive

Q 25.

A rise in carbon dioxide concentration in the blood causes

a. No change in respiration rateb. An increase in respiration ratec. A reduction in respiration rate

d. An increase or decrease in respiration rate depending on thecorresponding oxygen concentration in the blood

Q 26.

The recommended precaution regarding flying following a period ofscuba-diving in excess of four hours which was limited to a depth notrequiring decompression stops is

a. The four-hour period after diving should be spent at sea level.b. Supplemental oxygen should be available for all flights for the four-hour

period following the diving.c. In the 24-hour period following the diving, total flight time should not

exceed four hours.d. Flight altitude should be limited to 8,000 ft for the four-hour period

following the diving.

Q 27.

Under the Holmes-Rahe scale, the most stressful life event is

a. Divorceb. Death of a spousec. Pregnancyd. Jail terme. Death of a mouse

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Q 28.

While in flight you notice the other pilot is breathing heavily, his speechis slurred and he complains from feeling dizzy. You notice that his lipsand fingertips are blue-tinged. He is probably suffering from

a. Hyperventilationb. CO poisoningc. Emphysemad. Hypoxia

END OF PART A-HUMAN FACTORS

PART B-AIR LAW BEGINS NEXT PAGE

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PART A AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Part A of this examination consists of 30 questions. Each question is worth1 mark, giving a total possible score of 30 marks for Part A.

1. For a normally aspirated engine running at full power on an ISA day at sealevel, the MP gauge should read:

a) 29.92b) slightly more than 29.92c) slightly less than ambientd) slightly more than ambient

2. The battery compartment in an aircraft is vented to allow:

a) transfer of water vapour in and out of the areab) room for cables and wiring and allow for a lighter circuitc) the escape of hydrogen and oxygen, produced during chargingd) birds to neste) none of the above

3. During a very high speed dive a constant speed propeller may hit its

a) fine pitch stop and then under speedb) fine pitch stop and then over speedc) course pitch stop and then under speedd) course pitch stop and then over speed

4. Hydraulic pressure is controlled by

a) a hand pump and an engine driven pumpb) a hand pump and a pressure regulatorc) the accumulator and a pressure relief valve

d) a pressure relief and a pressure regulator valve

5. For most light aircraft with retractable undercarriages the gear warninghorn will sound if the undercarriage is not down and locked when

a) IAS is reduced below a certain valueb) The aircraft is in the circuit areac) MP is reduced below a certain valued) Rpm is reduced below a certain value

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6. During the landing roll there is a firm feel to the brakes but at constantpressure the pedals move further toward the cockpit floor. The likely causeis

a) Overheated brakes

b) Brake fluid level lowc) Air in the braking systemd) Master cylinder leak

7. Rate gyros such as those employed in turn coordinators rely on whichfundamental property of gyroscopes

a) Space rigidityb) Precession

c) Inertiad) Nausea

8. An aircraft is cruising with throttle with the propeller pitch control set for2300 rpm. If a failure locks the propeller pitch setting then movement of thethrottle can

a) Vary the rpm below 2300 but not above itb) Vary the rpm above 2300 but not below itc) Vary rpm both above and below 2300d) Have no effect on the rpm

9. The wastegate in a turbocharger system is used to

a) Control turbine rotational speedb) Control manifold pressure in the induction manifoldc) Control the pressure in the exhaust manifoldd) Bleed the exhaust gases downstream of the turbine

10. Lower than specified gas accumulator pressure causes

a) Increasing friction and vibration between moving partsb) Increased system operating pressurec) Reduced damping of pressure surgesd) Reduced fluid storage capacity

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11. While operating a CSU equipped aircraft, and maintaining a set manifoldpressure. The tendency for the engine to detonate will:

a) decrease, with a decrease in RPMb) increase, as mixture is enriched

c) increase, with a decrease in RPMd) decrease, with the application of carburettor heat

12. In most aircraft equipped with retractable undercarriages, the squatswitch is attached to

a) A mainwheel gear strutb) A nosewheel gear strutc) The hydraulic accumulatord) Nosewheel axle

13. During a ground power check, the blade angle of a constant speedpropeller should be fully fine so that

a) Propeller thrust does not become excessiveb) The engine does not overspeedc) Rpm can be used to assess power outputd) Rpm will remain constant throughout the check

14. The idling jet in a carburettor is designed to maintain,

a) An adequate supply of fuel with the engine at idling RPMb) A proper fuel/air mixture at idling RPMc) Excess air supply to the carburettor at idling RPMd) Linear engine acceleration during abrupt power changes

15. An aircraft with a non-turbocharged engine and a CSU is in cruising flightwith 22 / 2300 rpm set. If rpm is increased to 2500 with the prop pitchcontrol then

a) BHP will increaseb) MP and BHP will increasec) MP will decrease but BHP will increased) MP will decrease but BHP will remain constant

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16. What will be the effect on turbocharger operation if a significant exhaustgas leak develops upstream of the waste gate

a) Engine will overboostb) Power surges will occur

c) Power output reducedd) No effect

17. If the wastegate is jammed (closed) shut and the throttle is advanced

a) MP increases normallyb) MP increases slowlyc) MP fails to increase above ambient pressured) MP increases rapidly

18. Which of the following combinations is most likely to produce chargedetonation

a) High MP high rpm and low octane fuelb) High MP high rpm and high octane fuelc) Lean mixture high MP and low octane fueld) Rich mixture high MP and high octane fuel

19. In flight accumulation of ice in an aircrafts induction system will

a) Increase MP and decrease IASb) Decrease both MP and IASc) Not effect MP but will decrease IASd) Decrease MP but will not effect IAS

20. What is the primary purpose of a hydraulic accumulator?

a) Relieve excess pressure from the hydraulic system

b) Accumulate hydraulic fluid downstream of the reservoirc) Alleviate hydraulic pressure surgesd) Filter contaminants from the hydraulic fluid

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21. In most throttle-operated wastegate applications:

a) Throttle movement first closes the wastegate, then opens the butterflyvalve

b) Throttle movement first opens the butterfly valve, then closes the

wastegatec) Wastegate position is controlled automaticallyd) Wastegate position cannot be altered in flight. It must be preset on the

ground.

22. Ice forms in the carburettor of an engine fitted with a CS prop during thecruise. What effect does carburettor heat have on MP and rpm

a) Both MP and rpm decrease slightly then increaseb) Both MP and rpm decrease slightly then remain steady

c) MP decreases slightly and then increases, whilst rpm remains steady

d) MP increases and then remains steady whilst rpm remains steady

23. You are in cruising flight in an aircraft equipped with a non-super chargedengine and a CSU. The propeller pitch control is set to 2000 rpm, whichis fully coarse. If the throttle is advanced to increase the MP, then rpmwill

a) Decreaseb) Increasec) Remain constantd) Decrease then increase

24. An exhaust system leak downstream of the turbocharger wastegate will

a) Decrease power output if the wastegate is openb) Cause an overly lean mixturec) Not alter engine power output

d) Cause an overly rich mixture

25. During a full power run up of a non-supercharged engine on the ground,the MP gauge should register a MP value that is

a) Slightly greater than ambient pressureb) Slightly below ambient pressurec) Significantly greater than ambient pressured) Significantly below ambient pressure

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26. What should you test prior to flight in respect to a fire protection system?

(a) System wiring(b) Annunciators and warnings(c) Thermocouples

(d) Firewall Protection

27. As an unsupercharged aircraft with a constant speed propeller climbs:

a) volumetric efficiency will increase if the throttle setting is kept constant.b) volumetric efficiency will increase if the throttle is advanced.c) volumetric efficiency will decrease if the throttle setting is kept constant.

d) volumetric efficiency will decrease if the throttle is advanced.

28. The pitch of a propeller is the angle between:

a) the chord and the direction of rotation.b) the chord and direction of the relative airflow.c) the direction of the relative airflow.d) the chord angle and the angle of attack of the blade.

29. An aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller is put into a dive withoutaltering the throttle:

a) the engine RPM, propeller RPM and helix angle all increase.b) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase but helix angle decreases.c) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase as the angle of advance and

propeller torque decrease.d) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase as angle of advance and

propeller torque increase.

30. Blade angle of a constant speed propeller is the angle between the:

a) mean chord of a blade and the plane of rotation and varies automaticallywith a change in airspeed.b) mean chord of a blade and the relative airflow and varies automatically

with a change in airspeed.c) relative airflow and the plane of rotation and varies automatically with a

change of airspeed.d) mean chord of the blade and plane of rotation and remains constant with

a change of airspeed.

END OF PART A - AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

PART

B AERODYNAMICS BEGINS

ON

NEXT

PAGE

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PART B AERODYNAMICS

Part C of this examination consists of 30 questions. Each question is worth1 mark, giving a total possible score of 30 marks for Part B.

Question 1

During flight if a change is made in pitch attitude, an aeroplane will rotateabout its:

a) Centre of Pressureb) Longitudinal Axisc) Lateral Axisd) Chordline

Question 2

The net effect of all forces acting on an aerofoil can be attributed to a singleimaginary force called:

a) liftb) the total reactionc) induced dragd) total drag

Question 3

The force of drag during flight always acts parallel to the:

a) thrust lineb) wing chordc) longitudinal axisd) relative airflow

Question 4

The term 'coefficient' when applied to lift and drag for a particular aerofoil ismost closely related to:

a) angle of attackb) camberc) speedd) wing area

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Question 5

The aspect ratio is calculated by the expression:

a) the span divided by the chord

b) the chord divided by the wing areac) the chord squared divided by the wing aread) the span squared divided by the chord

Question 6

Pick the statement winch best describes the term 'lift'.

a) The force produced by an aerofoil at right angles to thelongitudinal axis

b) The force produced by an aerofoil at right angles to the chordc) The force produced by an aerofoil at right angles to the relative

airflowd) The force produced by an aerofoil which is equal and opposite

to weight

Question 7

For a piston engine aircraft, the maximum rate of climb possible at a givengross weight is governed by-.

a) the maximum lift possibleb) the minimum drag possiblec) excess thrustd) excess power

Question 8

The recommended IAS to achieve the maximum angle of climb at sea level is

74 kts for a particular aircraft. Which of the following would reduce the angleof climb?

a) a decrease in IASb) a headwindc) a reduction in density heightd) a reduction in take-off weight

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Question 9

The effect of fitting an aeroplane with a more powerful engine would be mostnoticeable during:

a) a maximum rate of climbb) a maximum angle of climbc) maximum speed during level flightd) minimum speed during level flight

Question 10

The speed at which produces the maximum lift/drag ratio angle of attack inlevel flight is also the speed which requires:

a) maximum thrustb) minimum thrustc) maximum powerd) minimum power

Question 11

An aircraft takes off in calm conditions climbs through a wind shear where astrong tail wind is encounted. What initial effects will this have on IAS andflight path ?

a) IAS will decrease and the flight path will be steeperb) IAS will increase and the flight path will be steeperc) IAS will decrease and the flight path will be shallowerd) IAS will increase and the flight path will be shallower

Question 12

If bank is increased and power kept constant during a level turn, what will be

the effect on turn performance ?

a) rate and radius of turn will increaseb) rate of turn will increase and radius of turn will decreasec) rate of turn will decrease and radius of turn will increased) radius and rate of turn will decrease

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Question 13

As the pilot raises the tail of a tailwheel aircraft during take off run :

a) the tendency to swing to the left will increase

b) there will be a tendency to swing to the rightc) there will be a tendency to overpitchd) there will be no noticeable change in the tendency to swing

Question 14

Wake turbulence will increase with:

a) an increase in aspect ratiob) an increase in weight

c) a increase ion IASd) a decrease in AOA

Question 15

An aircraft flying with a constant heading shows the balance ball deflected tothe left. The ground adjustable trim tab:

a) on the left aileron should be bent upb) on the right aileron should be bent upc) on the rudder should be bent leftd) on the rudder should be bent right

Question 16

For an aircraft to remain in the air for the greatest possible time per litre of fuelconsumed, it must be flown at a speed which requires:

a) the best lift/drag ratio

b) the smallest AOAc) the least amount of powerd) the least amount of drag

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Question 17

The application of high power with low IAS is accompanied by:

a) slipstream effect producing a roll

b) engine torque producing a rollc) gyroscopic effect producing a rolld) engine torque producing a yaw

Question 18

The term washoutrefers to wing design in such a way that:

a) its riggers angle at the tip is less than at the rootb) one wing is set at a different angle of incidence to the other

c) the riggers angle is negatived) the angle of incidence increases outboard from the root

Question 19

Floating during landing can be caused by ground effect when within howmany wing spans of the ground ?

a) 3b) 1.5c) 2d) 1

Question 20

The primary function of rudder, while entering a turn from straight and levelflight is to:

a) overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the higher wing

b) overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the lower wingc) make the aeroplane turnd) overcome he yaw caused by the raised aileron on the higher wing

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Question 21

To achieve maximum range when a wind exists, the correct speed to use is:

(a) the best lift/drag ratio speed in all conditions

(b) higher than best lift/drag ratio speed in a tailwind and slower in aheadwind

(c) higher than best Iift/drag ratio speed in a headwind and slower ina tailwind

(d) lower than best lift/drag ratio speed in both a headwind and atailwind

Question 22

The value of the minimum drag coefficient of a particular aerofoil is a factor in

determining:

(a) the maximum range of the aeroplane(b) the minimum speed in level flight(c) the stalling speed of the aeroplane(d) the maximum speed in level flight

Question 23

An effect of lowering flap during a descent is to:

(a) reduce the induced drag(b) decrease the gliding angle(c) increase the lift/drag ratio(d) increase lift and drag

Question 24

The initial effect of propeller torque on a single engine aeroplane when power

is increased is:

(a) the aeroplane will tend to yaw to the left(b) the aeroplane will tend to yaw to the right(c) the aeroplane will tend to roll to the left(d) the aeroplane will tend to roll to the right

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Question 25

"P factor" refers to the displacement of the thrust line towards the 'down goingblade' side of the propeller arc. The effect is greatest:

(a) at high angles of attack with low power applied(b) at low angles of attack with high power applied(c) at low angles of attack with low power applied(d) at high angles of attack with high power applied

Question 26

Laminar flow in the boundary layer tends to persist:

(a) across most of the upper surface

(b) across most of the lower surface(c) while ever the aerofoil section is thickening(d) to the separation point

Question 27

For a body to be in a state of equilibrium there must be:

(a) no motion occurring(b) no force acting on the body(c) no change in its motion(d) the minimum amount of drag acting

Question 28

Thrust stream turbulence varies with:

(a) engine power and IAS(b) engine power and distance from the source

(c) distance from the source and IAS(d) distance from the source and angle of attack

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Question 29

What is one advantage of an aeroplane said to be inherently stable?

(a) The aeroplane will not spin

(b) The aeroplane will require less effort to control(c) The aeroplane will return to its original condition after being

disturbed(d) The aeroplane will be difficult to stall

Question 30

If more power is required to maintain altitude when indicated airspeed isreduced, the aeroplane must be flying below:

(a) Vno (maximum structural cruising speed)(b) the speed for maximum endurance(c) the speed for best angle of climb(d) the speed for minimum drag

END OF PART B AERODYNAMICS

PART C METEOROLOGY BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE

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PART C METEOROLOGY

Part C of this examination consists of 44 questions. Each question is worth1 mark, giving a total possible score of 44 marks for Part C.

Q1) What is the extent of coverage of a domestic TAF?

A) it is valid for an area of 5 nm from the centre of the

airfield

B) it is valid for an area of 5 km from the centre of the airfield

C) it is valid for an area of 10 km from the centre of the airfield

D) it is valid from an area of 10 km from the centre of the

airfield

Q2) The most likely situation for the occurrence of radiation fog is:

A) a depression with no cloud cover

B) a col with high level cloud cover

C) a trough with no cloud cover

D) an anticyclone with no cloud cover

Q3) Tropical thunderstorm occurring in the hours just before dawn are

most likely to form:

A) a rapid decrease of air pressure with altitude

B) an area of light winds

C) an area of strong winds

D) a rapid change of surface pressure at a particular

location

Q4) A moist airflow over a mountain range in stable atmospheric

conditions is likely to result in:

A) a lower cloud base on the windward slope

B) a lower cloud base on the leeward slope

C) more cloud on the lee slope than on the windward slope

D) lower temperature on the leeward slope

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Q5) Which of the following is most favourable for the formation of a

dust storms near Adelaide?

A) an approaching cold front with a high pressure area to the

East

B) a high pressure area over South Australia with a cold front

to the East

C) a "col" near Adelaide

D) a ridge line passing through Adelaide

Q6) Visibility, as reported in a METAR in the Australian region, refers to:

A) visibility along the runway

B) visibility along the landing approach path

C) the greatest visibility over half or more of the horizonD) the minimum visibility over half or more of the horizon

E) the average visibility over the whole horizon.

Q7) An approaching idealised (fast moving) cold front may generally

be recognised by the accompanying:

A) overcast Nimbostratus cloud and heavy rain

B) extensive low Stratiform cloud and widespread drizzle

C) extensive middle level Stratiform cloud and steady rainD) broken Cumuliform cloud and rain showers

E) widespread fog

TAF refers to questions 8 to 10:

TAF AMD YSSY 142215Z 0024 30015KT 9999 SCT100

FM 08 18018KT 9999 SH FEW010 SCT020

FM 14 20012KT 9999 SCT030

INTER 0410 3000 TS SCT050CBT 22 24 24 21 Q 1012 1010 1008 1008

Q8) For what period is the forecast valid?

A) for 24 hrs commencing at midnight local time

B) for 24 hrs commencing at midnight UTC

C) for 24 hrs commencing at midnight on the 24th

D) for 12 hrs commencing at midnight on the 24th

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Q9) During what period does the forecast indicate the possibility of

cloud with a 1000 ft base at YSSY?

A) between 0800 and 1000 UTC

B) between 0800 and 1400 UTC

C) between 0800 and 1600 UTC

D) between 0800 and 2400 UTC

Q10) Which statement is correct concerning the forecast wind

velocity?

A) at 0500 UTC it will be 300/15 with the chance of short term

variations

if thunderstorms are present.

B) at 0800 UTC there will be a rapid wind change associatedwith the arrival of thunderstorms.

C) at 1100 UTC it will be 190/15

D) at 1200 UTC it will be 200/12

Q11) Strong horizontal wind shear would most likely be encountered:

A) at a strong surface inversion boundary

B) within a decaying thunderstorm cell

C) near a low pressure systemD) in cirrus cloud

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AREA 23 AREA FORECAST 142300 TO 151100

Overview:

WIND:

2000 5000 7000 10000 14000 18500

28020 27030 27030 26050 MS04 26055 MS12 26070

MS21CLOUD:

SCT CU 4000FT/8000FT

WEATHER:

ISOL RA SH IN SE TILL 02Z

VISIBILITY:

40KM DTRT 6KM RA SH

FREEZING LEVEL:

6000FT

ICE: MOD RIME INC ABV FZL

TURBULENCE:MOD ALL LEVELS

Questions 12 to 15 refer to Area Forecast above:

Q12) You are flying in Area 23 and you find there is little cloud. Is this

consistent with the forecast?

A) yes, because the forecast is for a 50% probability of

scattered cloud

B) yes, because the forecast is for scattered cloud and youare obviously in the 4/8 of the sky with no cloud

C) yes, because weather forecasters always deliberately

mislead the public

D) no, because there is cloud forecast, but none is seen

Q13) Cloud heights in ARFORS are given as:

A) height above 1013 hpa datum

B) height above mean sea levelC) height above the highest point in the area

D) height above ground level

Q14) Would VFR flight be permissible in AREA 23 at A065?

A) no

B) yes

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Q15) What is the forecast Outside Ait Temperature (OAT) at 10000ft in

Area 23?

A) positive four degrees C

B) negative four degrees C

C) ISA minus four degrees C

Q16) An area QNH is routinely issued by the Meteorology Office

every?

A) 3 hours

B) 1 hour

C) 4 hours

D) 2 hours

Q17) Turbulence within a thunderstorm cell is greatest?

A) in the growing stage because of the largest size and

concentration of water droplets

B) in the growing stage because of the strong updrafts

C) in the mature stage because of the large size and

concentration of water droplets

D) in the mature stage because of the strong updrafts and

downdrafts

Q18) From the list of weather situations given below, select that one

which would be favourable for the formation of fog

A) movement of warm moist air over a cool surface

B) frontal uplift near a depression

C) extremely low dew points in a deep southerly stream

D) an anticyclonic circulation of cold air over a warm land

surface

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Q19) With reference to the TAF below, which of the following conditions

are forecast to occur at time 0800 UTC?

TAF YSSY 270648Z 0024 16012KT 9999 SH BKN025

PROB40 INTER 0006 5000 TS SCT040CB

T 22 24 26 21 Q 1020 1021 1022 1025

A) the visibility is 9999 m, with 2/8 cloud at 800 ft

B) probability of thunderstorms with 4/8 CB at 4000 ft

C) showers from cloud with a base of 2500 ft

D) visibility 10 km or greater reducing to 5000 m, for periods up

to 30 minutes.

Q20) Which statement correctly describes the presentation of

information in a METAR?

A) height of the cloud base is expressed as a three figure

group

B) height of Cumulus cloud is expressed as six figure group

giving the height of both base and tops

C) wind speed is expressed as a five figure group

D) the period of validity is expressed as a four figure group.

Q21) A shear thunderstorm is most likely to form

A) in the tropics

B) at a frontal boundary

C) at an inversion

D) at high latitude

Q22) The cloud type most commonly associated with an approaching

idealised (fast moving) cold front is

A) broken cumulus

B) nimbostratus

C) stratus

D) altostratus

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Q23) You are flying in thick altostratus cloud with an OAT of -3C. The

type of ice (if any) you would be most likely to encounter is

A) rime

B) a mixture of rime and clear

C) clear

D) nil

Q24) Cloud will form when

A) the temperature falls below 0 degrees C

B) an air mass is heated to above its dew point

C) air is cooled below its dew point

D) evaporation occurs

Q25) A feature of the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm is

A) strong updraughts

B) severe vertical windshear

C) downdraughts

D) formation of the anvil

Q26) An increase in the water vapour content of a sample of air willresult in

A) a reduction in both air density and relative humidity

B) an increase in air density and relative humidity

C) a reduction in air density and an increase in relative

humidity

D) an increase in air density and a reduction in relative

humidity

Q27) A subsidence inversion is produced by:

A) terrestrial radiation

B) insolation

C) adiabatic compression

D) expansion

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Q28) The most likely situation for the occurrence of thunderstorms is

A) a depression with abundant moisture

B) a col with high level cloud

C) a trough with no cloud cover

D) an anticyclone with no cloud cover

Q29) As part of the general circulation, the winds over South Australia

and the southern part of western Australia are known as the:

A) south-east trade winds

B) north-east trade winds

C) mid-latitude easterlies

D) mid-latitude westerlies

Q30) A tropical cyclone moving south off the Queensland coast is

identified on a synoptic chart. The central pressure of the

cyclone is 958 HPA. Where would the strongest winds be

located?

A) in the south-east quadrant within 100 nm of the eye

B) in the south-west quadrant within the 100 nm of the eye

C) on the whole eastern side of the cyclone up to 300 nmfrom the eye

D) in the north-east quadrant within 100 nm of the eye

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Q31) A cold front has passed through Bass Strait. Winds are from the

south. Which answer best describes the type of cloud (if any)

you would expect to follow behind the front and for what reason?

A)Expect clear skies behind the front as the air is cold and

therefore dry, preventing cloud development.

B) Expect low stratified cloud and associated drizzle and possibly

fog as evening approaches.

C)Expect cumuliform cloud and possibly cold stream

thunderstorms, due to the cold air being warmed through

contact with the warmer sea surface.

D)Expect high cirrus type cloud only as the air is too dry behind

the cold front for any low cloud to form.

E) Expect steam fog, due to the cooling of the already cold

moist air to its dew point, through conduction with the

relatively cold sea surface temperature.

Q32) With regard to visibility in a METAR, which statement is most

correct?

A)Visibility at night is less than visibility by day.

B) Visibility at night is more than visibility by day, due largely to

the lack of convective dust in the air.

C)Visibility at night remains the same as the day value, provided

atmospheric transparency has not changed.

Q33) A cold front has passed though Bass Straight. What type of

thunderstorms could you expect behind this front, if any?

A) No thunderstorms as atmosphere is cold and therefore stable.

B) Equatorial nocturnal types

C)Airmass type

D) Orographic type

E) Cold stream type

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Q34) Which of the following weather phenomena could be associated

with a large cumulus cloud:

A) a shower of hail

B) virga

C) drizzle

D) intermittent rain

Q35) A cloud is described, in part, as: a generally grey cloud layer

with fairly uniform base, which may give drizzle. The cloud to

which this description applies is:

A) altostratus

B) nimbostratus

C) stratocumulusD) stratus

Q36) The primary difference between rime ice and clear is determined

by:

A) the size of the supercooled water droplets.

B) the temperature of the supercooled water droplets

C) the height of the supercooled water droplets

D) the size and temperature of the supercooled waterdroplets.

Q37) Precipitation lasting for periods of up to 50 minutes in any 1 hour

period usually with sky remaining overcast is classified as:

A) Continuous precipitation.

B) rain or snow showers.

C) intermittent precipitation

D) cyclonic rainfall

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Refer to the following TAF for Mildura for Questions 38 - 40

YMIA TAF AMD YMIA 131916Z 2008 33008KT 8000 RAIN BKN010 BKN120

FM23 27010KT 8000 LIGHT DRIZZLE BKN010 BKN030 FM04 27012KT

9999 FEW015 BKN030 INTER 2205 5000 THUNDERSTORMS WITH

RAIN BKN008 FEW030CB T 18 18 20 24 Q 1012 1014 1014

1013

Q38) What are the operational requirements providing if any, required

for a VFR aircraft planned arrival time at 0415UTC.

A) No alternate required

B) alternate required or 15 minutes holding

C) alternate required or 30 minutes holding

D) alternate required

E) alternate or 60 minutes holding

Q39) What is the visibility forecast for an arrival at Mildura time

2100UTC.

A) 8km visibility

B) 8km visibility reducing in rain

C) 5km visibility reducing in thunderstormsD) 8km visibility reducing to 5km in thunderstorms

Q40) What are the operational requirements providing if any, require

for a VFR aircraft planned arrival at 0520UTC.

A)No alternate required

B) alternate required or 15 minutes holding fuel

C)alternate required or 30 minutes holding fuel

D)alternate requiredE) alternate or 60 minutes holding fuel

F) 10 minutes holding fuel

G)holding fuel required

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Refer to the area forecast at the end of this Part B:

Q41) You plan to depart Moorabbin at time 0100UTC for a flight to

Bankstown via Albury. What cloud would you expect enroute

near the ranges?

A) ISOL CB 3000/3500

B) BKN ST 0500/2500

C) BKN ST 1000/3000

D) BKN CU/SC 3000/8000

Q42) What would be the freezing level during the time of your

departure:

A) 7000 feetB) 11,500 feet

C) 10,000 feet

D) 20,000 feet

Q43) In the Area forecasts how is cloud and wind measured?

A) CLOUD (AGL), WIND (MAGNETIC)

B) CLOUD (AGL), WIND (TRUE)

C) CLOUD (AMSL), WIND (TRUE)D) CLOUD (AMSL), WIND (MAGNETIC)

Q44) What is the lowest cloud forecasted west of the tough?

A) BKN CU/SC 3000/8000.

B) BKN ST 1000/3000

C) BKN CUSC 2500/8000

D) SCT ST 0500/2500

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AREA FORECAST

AREA30 AREA QNH 22/01AREA 30/32 N OF YLAO/MNG/YMCO 1012REST 1009

AREA30 AMEND AREA FORECAST 132300 TO 141100 AREAS 30/32AMD OVERVIEW:TROUGH NEAR RENMARK/CAMUS 23Z, BALRANALD/FLINDERSISLAND 05Z AND COROWA/ORBOST 11Z. RA/DZ AND FG AREASPARTICULARLY ON AND N OF RANGESWITH EXTENSIVE LOW CLOUD NEAR AND E OF TROUGH. ISOL TSRANEAR TROUGH.DRIZZLE PATCHES / ISOLATED SHOWERS W OF TROUGH. SMOKEPATCHES IN E.FOG PATCHES OVER SEA E OF 146E AND GIPPSLAND TILL 24Z.

SUBDIVISIONS:A: E OF TROUGHB: W OF TROUGH

WIND:2000 5000 7000 10000 14000 18500

A: 340/25 320/30 320/25 320/25 PS01 320/30 MS04 300/40 MS14B: 270/15 270/20 280/25 290/30 ZERO 300/35 MS06 300/40 MS16REMARK:WIND ABOVE 10000FT 10/15KNOTS STRONGER IN SW AFTER 05ZCLOUD:A: ISOL CB 3000/35000 NEAR TROUGH. BKN ST 0500/2500 ON AND N OF

DIVIDING RANGE, SCT TO SOUTH BUT BKN WITH RAIN/TSRA NEAR TROUGHAND OVER SEA E OF 146E. BKN CUSC 2500/8000 ISOL TOPS 12000.BKN ACAS ABOVE 10000.

B: BKN ST 1000/3000 NEAR TROUGH AND IN SHRA/DZ, BUT TENDING SCTFROM W. AREAS BKN CU/SC 3000/8000. SCT ACAS ABOVE 12000CLEARING E.

WEATHER:TSRA, FG, DZ, RA, SHRA, FU

VISIBILITY:500M FG, 3000M TSRA/DZ, 6KM FU/RA/SHRA

FREEZING LEVEL:11500 BUT 10000 W OF TROUGH

ICING:MOD ACAS/CU TOPS

TURBULENCE:MOD AC/CU. ISOL MOD BLW 7000 LEE RANGES.

AMD CRITICAL LOCATIONS: [HEIGHTS ABOVE MSL]KILMORE GAP: 0500 FG RA BKN ST 1200 BKN ACAS 10000 [CLOUD ON GROUND]

FM05 6000 SHRA BKN ST 1400 BKN CUSC 2500INTER 2302 4000 TSRA FEW030CB

END OF PART C METEOROLOGY

END OF EXAM

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2006 CPL EXAM 1