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Anatomy and Physiology 1 Final Exam Review
Pro. Dima Darwish, MD.
1) What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell?
a) plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm
b) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles
c) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
d) plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles
2) Which of the following types of membrane proteins function by recognizing and binding to hormones
and neurotransmitters?
a) transporters
b) receptors
c) enzymes
d) linkers
3) This type of membrane protein enables cells to catalyze specific chemical reactions at the
inner or outer surface of their plasma membrane.
a) receptors
b) phospholipids
c) cholesterol
d) enzymes
4) Plasma membranes are ________, which means that some chemicals move easily through
plasma membrane while other chemicals do not.
a) selectively permeable
b) concentration graded
c) electrically graded
d) selectively soluble
5) In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across
the membrane against their own concentration gradients.
a) active transport
b) facilitated diffusion
c) passive diffusion
d) osmosis
6) Which of the following transport process uses vesicles formed at the plasma membrane to take
up extracellular substances and import them into the cell?
a) endocytosis
b) exocytosis
c) facilitated diffusion
d) osmosis
7) Spermatozoa is the only type of human cell that contains a ________, which is a whip-like
structure that helps propel the sperm towards an oocyte.
a) cilium
b) flagellum
c) mitochondria
d) centrosome
8) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles modifies, sorts, and packages proteins
destined for other regions of the cell?
a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi complex
c) peroxisomes
d) nucleus
9) The major function of mitochondria is to
a) move the cell.
b) generate ATP.
c) produce proteins.
d) oxidize organelles
10) This structure binds to an amino acid and holds it in place on a ribosome until it is
incorporated into a polypeptide chain during translation.
a) mRNA
b) rRNA
c) tRNA
d) DNA
11) During this phase of cell division, the centromeres split leading to separation and subsequent
migration of the two members of a chromatid pair to opposite poles of the cells. The cleavage
furrow also begins to develop during this phase.
a) interphase
b) prophase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
12) Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion of a chemical across a
plasma membrane?
a) concentration gradient of the chemical across the membrane
b) mass of the diffusing chemical
c) distance that the chemical has to diffuse
d) amount of ATP available
e) temperature
13) A patient would be infused with a _______ solution in order to ultimately relieve excess
interstitial fluid in the brain.
a) tonicity
b) isotonic
c) hypertonic
d) hemolytic
14) What other organelle besides the nucleus contain DNA?
a) Golgi complex
b) lysosome
c) ribosomes
d) mitochondrion
15) Which of the following substances is normally transported across membranes via carrier-
mediated facilitated diffusion?
a) carbon dioxide gas
b) glucose
c) bacteria
d) fat-soluble vitamins
16) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles contains several oxidases that are
involved in oxidation of fatty acids and amino acids during normal metabolism and in
detoxification of chemicals like alcohol in the liver?
a) peroxisomes
b) mitochondria
c) proteasome
d) ribosomes
17) During this phase of cell division, organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begins.
a) interphase
b) prophase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
e) telophase
18) In this phase DNA replicates ?
a) G1
b) S
c) G2
d) M
19)Mitosis is:
a) somatic cell division
b) produces two identical cells
c) with the same number (diploid) and kinds of chromosomes as the original cell.
d) reproductive cell (gametes) division that produces cells in which the number of chromosomes
in the nucleus is reduced in half (haploid)
20)Phagocytosis is the mechanism of action of this cell of the immune system to protect from
microbes:
a)Natural killers
b)B lymphocytes
c) T lymphocytes
d) Macrophages
21) The three types of subatomic particles that are important for understanding chemical
reactions in the human body are
a) neutrons, quarks, and muons.
b) protons, neutrons, and electrons.
c) muons, positons, and neutrons.
d) electrons, quarks, and protons.
22) This is the name given to a negatively charged atom.
a) superoxide
b) isotope
c) anion
d) cation
23) This type of chemical reaction will absorb more energy than it releases.
a) exergonic
b) endergonic
c) potential
d) kinetic
24) An enzyme acts to
a) raise the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
b) lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.
c) convert the activation energy into potential energy.
d) convert the activation energy into kinetic energy
25) A solution with a pH value less than 7 is
a) basic.
b) neutral.
c) acidic.
d) alkaline.
26) Which of the following is a polysaccharide that serves as a storage form of energy in muscle
and liver cells?
a) glucose
b) sucrose
c) lactose
d) glycogen
27) Which of the following is the major function of DNA?
a) catalyzes metabolic reactions
b) storage of energy
c) transfer information for protein synthesis
d) long-term storage of information for protein synthesis
28) Loss of protein structure as in fried eggs is called:
a) emulsification.
b) denaturation.
c) hydrogenation.
d) hydrolysis.
29) AB + CD → AD + BC is a general example of a(n) _____ reaction.
a) decomposition
b) synthesis
c) exchange
d) reversible
30)The basic units of nucleic acids are nucleotides, composed of
a) nitrogenous base
b)pentose sugar
c) phosphate.
d)ribose is the pentose sugar in DNA
31) This is the study of the functions of body structures.
a) anatomy
b) physiology
c) endocrinology
d) histology
32) This is the sum of all chemical processes that occur in the body.
a) metabolism
b) anabolism
c) catabolism
d) auscultation
33) The two organ systems that regulate and maintain homeostasis are the
a) cardiovascular and integumentary systems.
b) nervous and endocrine systems.
c) cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
d) respiratory and muscular systems.
34) The composition of this body fluid, which fills the narrow spaces between cells and tissues.
a) lymph
b) blood plasma
c) interstitial fluid
d) intracellular fluid
35) This is the structure of a feedback system that receives output from the control center.
a) receptor
b) stimulus
c) response
d) effector
36) Objective changes in a patient’s normal body function that can be directly observed or
measured by a clinician are referred to as
a) symptoms.
b) disorders.
c) disturbance.
d) signs.
37) This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
a) frontal
b) sagittal
c) transverse
d) oblique
38) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the groin?
a) pelvic
b) umbilical
c) sternal
d) otic
39) Which of the following is a safe non-invasive imaging technique that uses the reflection of
high frequency sound waves off of body tissues to visualize a fetus during pregnancy?
a) computed tomography
b) magnetic resonance imaging
c) ultrasound scanning
d) radionuclide scanning
40) Which of these regions contains the gall bladder?
a) Right lumbar
b) Right hypochondriac
c) Left inguinal
d) Epigastric
41) Epithelial tissue
a) is used as a covering of body surfaces.
b) is used as a lining of body cavities and hollow organs.
c) is used to form glands.
d) usually has a free surface that interacts with external environment.
e) All of these Answer choices are correct.
42) This type of epithelial tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin.
a) Simple squamous epithelium
b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
c) Stratified squamous epithelium
d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
e) Simple columnar epithelium
43) Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?
a) Bone
b) Blood
c) Cartilage
d) Tendons
e) Muscle
44) The pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs are composed of this type of
connective tissue.
a) Adipose tissue
b) Elastic cartilage
c) Fibrocartilage
d) Dense irregular connective tissue
45) Which following types of cells are able to produce electrical signals?
a) myofibers and neurons
b) myofibers and connective tissue cells
c) neuroglial cells and neurons
d) neurons and epithelial cells
46) Which of the following is a term used to describe a decrease in the size of a
tissue that is the result of an decrease in the size, not number, of cells in that tissue?
a) atrophy
b) hyperplasia
c) hypertrophy
d) anaplasia
47) Mucus-secreting cells found distributed among the simple columnar epithelial
linings of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system are called
a) fibroblasts.
b) macrophages.
c) goblet cells.
d) mast cells.
48) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of epithelial tissues?
a) Cells are tightly packed together.
b) Large amount of extracellular matrix.
c) Contains no blood vessels within tissue.
d) Found on the exposed surfaces of the body.
49) The thin extracellular layer, consisting of the basal and reticular lamina, that
anchors epithelial cells to underlying connective tissue is called the
a) basement membrane.
b) tunica adventitia.
c) tight junction.
d) adherens junctions.
50) These type of cell junctions anchor adjacent cells together and keeps material
from leaking out of the urinary bladder:
a) tight junctions
b) gap junctions
c) adherens junctions
d) desmosomes
51) In which of the following locations would you most likely find transitional
epithelial cells?
a) Lining of the esophagus
b) Outer layer of skin
c) Lining of the urinary bladder
d) On the surface of the heart
52) This type of multicellular exocrine gland has a branched rounded secretory part
attached to a single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands.
a) Simple coiled tubular gland
b) Compound tubular gland
c) Compound tuboloacinar gland
d) Simple branched acinar gland
53) This type of exocrine gland bud their secretion off the plasma membrane such
as mammelary glands.
a) Apocrine
b) Exocrine
c) Holocrine
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
54) Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue?
a) Blood
b) trabecular bone
c) Areolar connective tissue
d) Elastic connective tissue
55) Which of the following types of tissues is striated and moves under voluntary
control?
a) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle
c) cardiac muscle
d) transitional epithelium
56) Mucus-secreting cells found distributed among the simple columnar epithelial
linings of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system are called
a) fibroblasts.
b) macrophages.
c) goblet cells.
d) mast cells.
57) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of
a) enzymes and membranous organelles.
b) plasma membranes and ground substance.
c) keratinized cells and protein fibers.
d) protein fibers and ground substance.
58) Which of the following types of fibers are commonly found in the extracellular
matrix of connective tissue?
a) Elastic
b) Reticular
c) Collagen
d) All of these Answer choices are correct.
59) A neuron’s function is:
a) pumping of blood
b) propulsion of food
c) contraction of bladder
d) conduct nerve impulses to muscle fibers
60)This muscle is an example of nonstriated involuntary muscle :
a) biceps
b) stomache
c) heart
d) all of the above
61) Electrical signals called ________ travel along the plasma membrane of a
neuron and stimulate the release of chemicals called ___________ that are then
used to communicate with other cells.
a) action potentials; neurotransmitters
b) action potentials; hormones
c) action potentials; cytokines
d) threshold potentials; cytokines
62)Langerhans cell
a) is a protein.
b) is secreted by plasma cells to help protect the body from viruses.
c) is made by melanocytes only.
d) participate in immune response against microbes
e) All of these choices are correct.
63) This pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing
ultraviolet light.
a) Keratin
b) Melanin
c) Melatonin
d) Carotene
e) Collagen
64) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus,
which is the thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.
a) stratum basale
b) stratum spinosum
c) stratum granulosum
d) stratum lucidum
e) stratum corneum
65) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and
inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
a) Arrector pili
b) Lunula
c) Sweat glands
d) Hair follicles
e) Oil glands
66) Which of the following substances is responsible for the yellowing of the skin
a) hirsutism
b) pallor
c) jaundice
d) bilirubin
e) erythema
67) You stepped on a nail. List the sequential layers (or strata) of the epidermis
that the nail penetrated through to finally reach the dermis.
a) basale, spinosum, granulosom, corneum
b) granulosom, spinosum, lucidum, corneum, basale
c) corneum, lucidum, granulosom, spinosum, basale
d) corneum, granulosom, spinosum, basale
e) corneum, granulosom, lucidum, spinosum, basale
68) the skin contributes to:
a)Regulation of body temperature
b)Sensory perceptions
c)Synthesis of vitamin C
d) It also serves as an important reservoir of blood.
69) The process of keratinization involves
a) synthesizing new pigment in the skin.
b) cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.
c) changes occurring in thin skin only.
d) both synthesizing new pigment in the skin and cells accumulating a tough
fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.
70) Characteristics of thick skin include:
a) Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips.
b) Does not contain hair follicles.
c) Contains more sweat glands than thin skin.
d) Contain epidermal ridges.
e) All of these choices are correct
71) This is fine nonpigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus.
a) Alopecia
b) Vellus
c) Lanugo
d) Papilla
72) This type of exocrine gland is a simple, branched acinar gland connected to a
hair follicle.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sudoriferous gland
c) Both sebaceous gland and sudoriferous gland
d) None of these answers are correct
73) Which of the following terms refers to redness of the skin such as seen in
patients with inflammation, infection or heat exposure?
a) hirsutism
b) pallor
c) jaundice
d) erythema
74) Which of the following skin disorders involves inflammation of sebaceous
glands caused by bacteria which thrive in the lipid-rich sebum?
a) alopecia
b) acne
c) vitiligo
d) pressure ulcer
75) “Goose bumps” are caused by
a) contraction of arrector pili muscles.
b) secretions from the sudoriferous glands.
c) contraction of dermal papillae.
d) stimulation of hair root plexus.
76) Which of the following is a common characteristic of thin skin?
a) Hairless.
b) Contains a stratum lucidum.
c) High density of sensory receptors.
d) Presence of sebaceous glands.
e) Contains epidermal ridges.
77) Which of the primary germ layers of the embryo does the epidermis of the skin
develop from?
a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) All of these choices are correct.
78) Which of the following about the deep wound healing is NOT true ?
a) Blood clot is forming.
b). New collagen fibers are forming
c) Epithelium is migrating across wound.
d) This process is limited by the epithelium
79) This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) marrow
80) One function of this long bone structure is the storage of energy in the form of
triglycerides.
a) diaphysis
b) epiphysis
c) metaphysis
d) periosteum
e) marrow
81) This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that allows the diaphysis to grow in length.
a) periosteum
b) distal epiphysis
c) nutrient foramen
d) articular cartilage
e) epiphyseal plate
82) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized
stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell?
a) osteogenic cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes
b) osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
c) osteogenic cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts
d) osteoblasts, osteogenic cells, osteocytes
83) This type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in
children.
a) open
b) comminuted
c) impacted
d) greenstick
84) An increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones?
a) calcitriol and parathyroid hormone
b) calcitonin and calcitriol
c) human growth hormone and parathyroid hormone
d) parathyroid hormone and insulin
85) The general process by which bones form is called
a) ossification.
b) osteomalacia.
c) calcification.
d) apposition.
86) These are considered bone-breaking cells.
a) fibroblasts
b) osteoclasts
c) osteocytes
d) osteoblasts
e) all of these choices
87) Which of the following structures contain osteocytes?
a) haversian canals
b) Volkmann’s canals
c) concentric lamellae
d) lacunae
e) canaliculi
88) Which of the following two minerals are needed in large quantities when bones
are growing?
a) calcium and chlorine
b) magnesium and sulfur
c) calcium and phosphorous
d) manganese and sulfur
e) potassium and phosphorous
89) The result of inadequate calcification of the extracellular bone matrix is called
a) ossification.
b) osteomalacia.
c) calcification.
d) apposition.
e) orthodontics.
90) Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that
occur during intramembranous ossification?
a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae >
Development of new periosteum.
b) Calcification > Cartilage model > Formation of trabeculae > Development of
new periosteum.
c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification >
Development of new cartilage.
d) Cartilage model > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of
trabeculae.
91) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a) Tarsals
b) Tibia
c) Sphenoid
d) Scapula
e) Clavicl
92) Which following types of bones is the patella?
a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone
c) Irregular bone
d) Sesamoid bone
e) Short bone
93) Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone?
a) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels.
b) They provide sites of attachment for muscles.
c) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen.
d) They help form joints.
e) They can be depressions or projections.
94) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the
eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure.
b) foramen.
c) fossa.
d) meatus.
e) sulcus.
95) These cranial bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial
floor.
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal
96) These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the
mandible.
a) Frontal
b) Temporal
c) Parietal
d) Occipital
e) Nasal
97) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with
every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital
b) Frontal
c) Ethmoid
d) Nasal
e) Sphenoid
98) Which condition is characterized by an increase in the thoracic curve of the vertebral
column?
a) herniated disc
b) scoliosis
c) kyphosis
d) lordosis
e) spina bifida
99) Which condition is the protrusion of the nucleus pulposus posteriorly or into one of the
adjacent vertebral bodies in the vertebral column?
a) herniated disc
b) scoliosis
c) kyphosis
d) lordosis
e) spina bifida
100) What is inflammation of one or more costal cartilage called?
a) Costochondritis
b) Arthritis
c) Cartilaginous distension
d) Otitis
e) Intercostal space distension
101) The following is a bone marking on the clavicle that serves as an attachment site.
a) Conical tuberosity
b) Acromion process
c) Deltoid tuberosity
d) Impression for the costoclavicular ligament
102) Why does a fracture of the clavicle usually occur in the mid-region of the bone?
a) Due to the medial pressure from the inflated lungs
b) Due to the ligament-reinforced strength of the acromial joint
c) Due to weakness at the junction of the two curves of clavicle
d) Due to position of the clavicle relative to the humerus
103) What is the scapular notch used for?
a) Ligament attachment
b) Tendon attachment
c) Passageway for suprascapular nerve
d) Both ligament and tendon attachment
104) Which of the following bone markings on the scapula is an indentation into which the head
of the humerus fits?
a) Coracoid process
b) Glenoid cavity
c) Acromion
d) Scapular notch
105) The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the
a) radius.
b) ulna.
c) scapula.
d) carpal bones.
106) This is a spool-shaped process on distal end of the humerus that is found medial to the
capitulum and articulates with the ulna.
a) Coronoid fossa
b) Trochlea
c) Medial epicondyle
d) Lateral epicondyle
107) Which of the following carpal bones is named for its large hook-shaped projection on its
anterior surface?
a) Lunate
b) Scaphoid
c) Triquetrum
d) Hamate
108) The coxal bones unite inferiorly at a joint called the
a) pubic symphysis.
b) sacroiliac joint.
c) hip.
d) acetabulum.
109) Which of the following is a condition where the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is
decreased?
a) Patellofemoral stress syndrome
b) Bunions
c) Flatfoot
d) Clawfoot
110) Which of the following often occurs in dancers due to losing balance while standing on
their toes?
a) Patellofemoral stress syndrome
b) Fractures of the metatarsals
c) Flatfoot
d) Clawfoot
111) Which of the following types of joints do NOT have a synovial cavity?
1. Fibrous joints
2. Cartilaginous joints
3. Synovial joints
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 2
e) All of these choices
112) This functional class of joints contains joints that are freely movable.
1. Synarthrosis
2. Amphiarthrosis
3. Diarthrosis
113) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of synovial joints?
a) Contain a joint cavity
b) Are freely moveable
c) Articulating bones are covered with hyaline cartilage
d) Include elastic cartilage
e) Have ligaments holding the joint together
114) This type of motion results from relatively flat bone surfaces moving back and forth and
from side to side with respect to one another.
a) Flexion
b) Extension
c) Gliding
d) Circumduction
e) Hyperextension
115) This special movement occurs when you bend your foot at the ankle in the direction of the
foot’s superior surface as would occur when you stand on your heels.
a) Inversion
b) Eversion
c) Dorsiflexion
d) Plantar flexion
e) Supination
116) This special movement involves moving your thumb across the palm to touch the tips of the
fingers on the same hand.
a) Pronation
b) Supination
c) Eversion
d) Retraction
e) Opposition
117) Which of the following diseases is characterized by sodium urate crystals being deposited
in the soft tissues of joints?
a) gouty arthritis
b) Lyme disease
c) ankylosing spondylitis
d) osteoarthritis
e) rheumatoid arthritis
118) A condition in which a muscle or muscle and tendon is stretched or partially torn is called
a) bursitis.
b) a sprain.
c) a strain.
d) a dislocation.
e) an arthrosis.
119) This ligament prevents the anterior sliding of the tibia when the knee is flexed.
a) Fibular collateral ligament
b) Anterior cruciate ligament
c) Posterior cruciate ligament
d) Patellar ligament
e) Arcuate popliteal ligament
120) Which feature goes with the knee joint?
a) medial and lateral menisci
b) glenoid labrum
c) radial annular ligament
d) zona orbicularis
e) acetabular labrum
-Answer the following with A if true and with B if false:
121. The hormone relaxin stimulates changes that lead to increased range of motion in the pubic
symphysis.
122.The articulation of the Trochlea with the Trochlear notch is an example of hinge joint .
123. Knee joint is a pivot joint.
124. Bending the trunk forward at the intervertebral discs is an example of Hyperextension.
125. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that is associated inflammation of joints.
126. Scapula articulates with Clavicle and Humerus.
127.Lacrimal bone articulates with teeth.
128.Femur articulates with Fibula and Patella to form the knee joint.
129.Temporall bone is a long bone.
130.Ethoid bone is a cranial bone.
131) Which of the following is NOT a major function of muscle tissue?
a) moving blood throughout the body
b) generating heat through contractions
c) stabilizing the movement of joints
d) promoting movement of body structures
e) Production of Vitamins.
132) This is the property of muscle that gives it the ability to stretch without damage.
a) electrical excitability
b) contractility
c) extensibility
d) elasticity
e) thermogenesis
133) This is the outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle.
a) tendon
b) ligament
c) endomysium
d) epimysium
e) perimysium
134) In neuromuscular junctions, synaptic vesicles containing acetylcholine are found suspended
in the cytosol of
a) myelin bulbs.
b) neuromuscular bulbs.
c) synaptic end bulbs.
d) axon collateral bulbs.
e) tubule bulbs.
135) After the fusion of myoblasts, the muscle fiber loses its ability to do what?
a) grow
b) lengthen
c) contract
d) go through cell division.
e) all of the answer choices
136) Which of the following correctly lists the sequence of structures that action potentials must
move through to excite skeletal muscle contraction?
a) sarcolemma, axon of neuron, T tubules
b) T tubules, sarcolemma, myofilament
c) muscle fiber, axon of neuron, myofibrils
d) axon of neuron, sarcolemma, T tubules
e) myofibrils, myofilaments, mitochondria
137) The contractile organelles of a skeletal muscle fiber are thread-like structures called
a) myofibrils.
b) myoglobin.
c) mitochondria.
d) Z discs.
e) M lines.
138) The sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle fibers is used for storing
a) oxygen.
b) ATP.
c) PO43-.
d) Na+.
e) Ca2+.
139) What regulatory proteins can be found in the thin filaments of skeletal muscle fibers?
a) troponin and titin
b) tropomyosin and troponin
c) myosin and titin
d) titin and tropomyosin
e) tropomyosin and myosin
140) Which of the following proteins is used to reinforce the sarcolemma and to help transmit
the tension generated by the sarcomeres to the tendons?
a) troponin
b) tropomyosin
c) myosin
d) actin
e) dystrophin
141) During muscle contraction by the sliding filament mechanism, thin filaments are pulled
towards the
a) Z disc.
b) H zone.
c) M line.
d) A band.
e) I band.
142) What energizes the myosin head?
a) the actin filaments
b) calcium ions
c) potassium ions
d) ATP hydrolysis reaction
e) ADP synthesis
143) Which of the following are commonly used to produce ATP during skeletal muscle
contraction?
a) creatine phosphate
b) anaerobic cellular respiration
c) aerobic cellular respiration
d) All of these choices are correct.
144) This is also referred to as the period of lost excitability in skeletal muscle fibers.
a) refractory period
b) contraction period
c) latent period
d) relaxation period
e) wave summation
145) A period of sustained skeletal muscle contraction in which individual twitches cannot be
detected is called
a) unfused tetanus.
b) muscle atrophy.
c) flaccidity.
d) fused tetanus.
e) wave summation.
146) Which of the following types of muscle tissue contract when excited by their own
autorhythmic muscle fibers?
a) cardiac muscle
b) slow twitch oxidative skeletal muscle
c) fast twitch glycolytic skeletal muscle
d) All of these choices are correct.
147) Which term or condition in characterized by a loss of muscle tone?
a) spasticity
b) flaccid paralysis
c) spastic paralysis
d) rigidity
e) hypertonia
148) Which is a NOT a side-effect of anabolic steroid use by female athletes?
a) sterility
b) baldness
c) facial hair growth
d) menstrual irregularities
e) deepening of the voice
149) Leg muscles are predominantly composed of which type of muscle fiber?
a) slow oxidative
b) fast glycolytic
c) fast oxidative-glycolytic
d) slow glycolytic
e) fast oxidative
150) The attachment of a muscle’s tendon to the stationary bone is called the ______; the
attachment of the muscle’s other tendon to the movable bone is called the ______.
a) origin, action
b) insertion, action
c) origin, insertion
d) insertion, origin
e) insertion, action
151) Motion will occur in a muscle when the ______ supplied exceeds the _______.
a) effort, load
b) resistance, lever
c) load, effort
d) load, resistance
e) lever, effort
152) The muscle that serves as the “prime mover” during a movement is called the
a) antagonist.
b) agonist.
c) synergist.
d) asynergist.
e) fixator.
153) This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of the agonist so that it can act more
efficiently.
a) synergist
b) agonist
c) antagonist
d) fixator
e) secondary mover
154) If one is stabbed on the lateral side of the abdomen, what abdominal muscles, in order from
superior to deep, will the knife go through?
a) rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique
b) external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis
c) transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis, external oblique
d) external oblique, transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis
e) internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external oblique
155) Protrusion of an organ through a structure that normally contains it is referred to as a
a) hernia.
b) goiter.
c) strain.
d) sprain.
e) hydrocele.
156) A muscle that decreases the size of an opening is a
a) rotator.
b) tensor.
c) pronator.
d) sphincter.
e) depressor.
157) Which of the following is a muscle that moves the mandible?
a) orbicularis oculi
b) masseter
c) orbicularis oris
d) epicranius
e) frontalis
158) All of the following are muscles that move the eyeball EXCEPT
a) superior rectus.
b) lateral rectus.
c) inferior oblique.
d) internal oblique.
e) superior oblique.
159) Which of the following is a muscle whose insertion is found on the clavicle and acromion
process of the scapula within the pectoral girdle?
a) trapezius
b) pectoralis major
c) latissimus dorsi
d) gracilus
e) sartorius
160) Which of the following muscles is used to flex and abduct the hand at the wrist joint?
a) flexor digitorum profundus
b) flexor digitorum superficialis
c) flexor carpi radialis
d) flexor carpi ulnaris
e) palmaris longus
162) If one is stabbed on the lateral side of the abdomen, what abdominal muscles, in order from
superior to deep, will the knife go through?
a) rectus abdominis, external oblique, internal oblique
b) external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis
c) transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis, external oblique
d) external oblique, transversus abdominis, rectus abdominis
163) A muscle that decreases the size of an opening is a
a) rotator.
b) tensor.
c) pronator.
d) sphincter.
164) Which of the following is a muscle that moves the mandible?
a) orbicularis oculi
b) masseter
c) orbicularis oris
d) epicranius
165) Which of the following is a muscle whose insertion is found on the clavicle and acromion
process of the scapula within the pectoral girdle?
a) trapezius
b) pectoralis major
c) latissimus dorsi
d) gracilus
e) sartorius
166) What is the insertion of the triceps brachii muscle?
a) ulnar tuberosity and coronoid process of ulna
b) radial tuberosity of radius and bicipital aponeurosis
c) olecranon of ulna
d) lateral border of distal end of humerus
167)What is the origin of the rectus abdominis muscle?
a) iliac crest and linea alba
b) xiphoid process
c) ribs 5-12
d) central tendon
e) pubic bone
168) What is the action of the biceps brachii muscle?
a) extends the forearm at the elbow joint
b) flexes the forearm at the elbow joint
c) pronates the forearm at the radioulnar joints
d) abduct arm at shoulder joint
169) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nervous system?
a) Sensory function
b) Integrative function
c) Motor function
d) All are functions of the nervous system
170) Which of the following are divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
a) Somatic nervous system
b) Autonomic nervous system
c) Enteric nervous system
d) All of these choices
171) Which of following organelles is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons?
a) mitochondria
b) nucleus
c) Nissl body
d) Golgi apparatus
172) Which of the following types of neurons have one axon and one dendrite emerging from the
cell body and are found in the retina of the eye, inner ear, and olfactory region of the brain?
a) Multipolar neuron
b) Bipolar neuron
c) Unipolar neuron
d) Purkinje cell
173) This type of nervous tissue contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons,
axon terminals, and neuroglial cells.
a) Gray matter
b) White matter
c) Nissl bodies
d) Ganglia
174) During the resting state of a voltage-gated Na+ channel,
1. the inactivation gate is open.
2. the activation gate is closed.
3. the channel is permeable to Na+.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) both 1 and 2 are true.
e) all of these choices are true.
175) During this period, a second action potential can only be initiated by a larger than normal
stimulus
a) Latent period
b) Absolute refractory period
c) Relative refractory period
d) All of these choices
e) None of these choices
176) Which of the following terms is used to describe a type of synapse?
a) Axodendritic
b) Axosomatic
c) Axoaxonic
d) None of these choices
e) All of these choices
177) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to touch, pressure, vibration, or
tissue stretching and is found in the auditory receptors of the ear, and in touch and pressure
receptors in the skin.
a) leakage channel
b) ligand-gated channels
c) mechanically gated channels
d) voltage-gated channels
e) temperature-sensitive channel
178) Which of the following types of neurons is exclusively found in the cerebral cortex?
a) bipolar neuron
b) Purkinje cells
c) unipolar neuron
d) pyramidal cells
179) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to changes in membrane
potential and is located in axons of all types of neurons.
a) leakage channel
b) ligand-gated channels
c) mechanically gated channels
d) voltage-gated channels
180) In an action potential, the current that flows down the axon of a neuron is generated by the
movement of ______ across the membrane.
a) electrons
b) protons
c) ions
d) free radicals
181) Which of the following neurotransmitters are used in virtually all of the inhibitory synapses
found in the spinal cord?
a) glutamate and aspartate
b) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycine
c) epinephrine and norepinephrine
d) serotonin and melatonin
182) Which of the following types of electrical signals allow rapid long-distance communication
within the nervous system?
a) resting potential
b) nerve action potential
c) muscle action potential
d) graded potential
183) Which of the three spinal meninges is the closest to the brain tissue?
a) Arachnoid mater
b) Dura mater
c) Meninx mater
d) Pia mater
184) Which of the structures listed below contains cerebrospinal fluid?
a) Epidural space
b) Subarachnoid space
c) Dural space
d) Meninx
185) Which of the following structures contains only sensory axons that conduct nerve impulses
from sensory receptors in the skin, muscles and internal organs to the CNS?
a) Spinal nerves
b) Cauda equina
c) Anterior root of spinal nerves
d) Posterior root of spinal nerves
186) What type of information is carried in the ascending tracts of the spinal cord?
a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Integration
d.Sensory and motor
187) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the spinothalamic tract?
a) Begins in the spinal cord
b) Terminates in the thalamus
c) Found in the gray matter of the spinal cord
d) Carries sensory information
188) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would have a cell body in the posterior root
ganglion?
a) Sensory receptor cell
b) Sensory neuron
c) Motor neuron
d) Effector
e) Interneuron
189) Which of the following is NOT a major region of the brain?
a) Brain stem
b) Cerebellum
c) Cauda equina
d) Diencephalon
e) Cerebrum
190) This extension of the dura mater separates the two hemispheres of the cerebrum.
a) Falx cerebri
b) Falx cerebelli
c) Tentorium cerebelli
d) Tentorium cerebri
191) These are networks of capillaries found in the walls of the ventricles of the brain that
produce cerebrospinal fluid.
a) Choroid plexuses
b) Lateral apertures
c) Interventricular foramina
d) Brachial plexuses
e) Aqueduct of the midbrain
192) Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed through these fingerlike projections found in the dural
venous sinuses.
a) Choroid plexuses
b) Microvilli
c) Arachnoid villi
d) Dural villi
e) Lemnisci
193) Which of the following is a nucleus found in the midbrain that releases dopamine?
a) Substantia nigra
b) Inferior olivary nucleus
c) Inferior colliculus
d) Cerebral peduncle
e) Apneustic area
194) Which of the following glands is directly controlled by hormones produced by the
hypothalamus?
a) Pineal gland
b) Anterior pituitary gland
c) Thymus gland
d) Pancreas
195) During brain development, the gyri of the cerebrum are formed because
a) the white matter enlarges faster than the overlying gray matter.
b) the cerebrum grows faster than the dura mater.
c) the hypothalamus is larger than the epithalamus.
d) the gray matter grows faster than the underlying white matter.
e) the lobes of the cerebrum are not symmetrical.
196) Which of the following functional areas of the cerebrum is responsible for speech?
a) Broca’s area
b) Primary gustatory area
c) Common integrative area
d) Prefrontal cortex area
e) Primary somatosensory area
197) Which of the following cranial nerves control movements of the eyeball?
a) II, III and IV
b) I, V and X
c) III, IX and V
d) III, IV and VI
e) X, XI and XII
198) This type of brain wave occurs at awaking phase.
a) Alpha waves
b) Beta waves
c) Theta waves
d) Delta waves.
e) All of the selections are correct
199) Interoceptors are found in
a) blood vessels
b) visceral organs
c) muscles
d) all of these choices
e) none of these choices
200) The autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling
a) exocrine glands.
b) skeletal muscle.
c) cardiac muscle.
d) smooth muscle.
e) endocrine glands.
201) Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
a) Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
b) Has myelinated axons.
c) Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
d) Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
e) Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
202) A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
a) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
b) is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
c) has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
d) has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
e) carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
203) These ganglia contain the cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons that serve the
parotid salivary glands.
a) Ciliary ganglia
b) Pterygopalatine ganglia
c) Submandibular ganglia
d) Otic ganglia
e) None of these choices
204) The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
a) nicotine and adrenaline.
b) muscarine and acetylcholine.
c) norepinephrine and muscarine.
d) norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
e) somatostatin and nicotine.
205) Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?
a) Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors
b) Muscarinic and somatic receptors
c) Adrenergic and somatic receptors
d) Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
e) Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors
206) Autonomic tone is regulated by the
a) medulla oblongata.
b) cerebellum.
c) cerebrum.
d) vermis.
e) hypothalamus.
207) Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the parasympathetic division of
the ANS?
a) Decreased heart rate
b) Airway dilation
c) Decreased pupil diameter
d) Increased secretion of digestive juices
e) Increased gastric motility
208) Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector during
the “fight-or-flight” response?
a) Gastric motility and secretory activity increases.
b) Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict.
c) Adipose tissues stores away triglycerides for later use.
d) The pupils of the eyes dilate.
e) Blood vessels serving the kidneys and digestive organs dilate.
209) Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of
activation?
a) receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
b) receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector
c) effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor
d) integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector
e) receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center
210) One of the main differences between a somatic reflex and autonomic reflex is the type of effectors
that are activated. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _______, while the effectors in autonomic
reflexes are _______________.
a) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
b) striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
c) skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
d) glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
e) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only
