Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K Civil Engineering Technical Questions CONTENTS P.No. Strength of Materials and Structural Design 2 Structural Analysis 17 Concrete Structures 21 Hydraulics 30 Water Resources Engineering 43 Building Materials 46 Building Construction 54 Surveying 59 Fluid Mechanics 67 Engineering Geology 84 Construction Management 90 Architecture and Town Planning 100 Transportation Engineering 103 Environmental Engineering 132 Building Science 136Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K STRENGTH OF MATERIALS & STRUCTURAL DESIGN I 1. The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the load is called, a. Plasticity b. Elasticity c.Ductility d. Malleability 2. The property of a material which allows of its being drawn out of tension to a smaller section, is called a.Plasticity b. Elasticity c.Ductility d. Malleability 3. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into plates, is called a. Malleability b. Ductility c.Plasticity d.Elasticity 4. As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain a. increases more quickly b. decreases more quickly c. incrases in proportion to the stress d. decreases in proportion to the stress 5. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is considerably a. more than that necessary to continue it b. less than that necessary to continue it c. more than that necessary to stop it d. less than necessary to stop it 6. The phenomenon of slow extension of materials i.e, increasing with the time having constant load, is called a. creeping b.yielding c.breaking d.none of the above 7.the stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load, is called a.elastic point of the material b. plastic point of the material c. breaking point of the material d.yielding point of the material 8. Every material obeys the Hookes law within its a. elastic limit b.plastic limit c. limit of proportionality d.none of the above 9. Material which have the same elastic properties in all directions, are called a.isotropic material b.brittle materials c. homogenous materials d. hard material Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 10. The law which states that within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to stress producing it, is known is a.Bernoullis law b.stress law c. Hookes law d.Poissons law d.none of the above 11. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it so produced in it is called, a.shear stress b.compressive stress c. tensile stress e. transverse stress 12. Which one of the following statements is false. The under mentined type is simple strain. a. tensile strain b. compressive strain c. shear strain d.tensile stress e. volumetric strain 13. For a solid cube, subjected to equal normal forces of the same type on all its faces, the volumetric strain will be x-times the linear strain in any of the three axes when a. x=1 b. x=2 c. x=3 d.x=4 14. If the length of a bar held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end is large, its own weight produces additional stress and the resultant maximum stress will be a. at the lower section b. at the built in upper cross-section c. at the central cross-section d. at every point of the bar 15. If the stess produced by a prismatic bar is equal to the working stress, the area of the cross-sectin of the prismatic bar becomes a. zero b. infininte c. maximum d. minimum 16. The ratio o f the elongations of a conical bar under the action of its own weight and that of a prismatic bar of the same length, is a. b.1/3 c.1/4 d.1/5 e.1/6 17.If all the dimensions of a bar are incresed in the proportion n:1, the proportion with which the maximum stress produced in the prismatic bar by its own weight, will increase in the ratip a.1:n b. n:1 c.1:1/n d.1/n:1 e.1:n1/2 Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 18. If the stress in each cross-section of a pillar is just equal to its working stress, its form called a. form of equal stress b. form of equal section c. form of equal strength d. none of these 19. For a given material, if E,C,K and m are Youngs modulus, shearing modulus, bulk modulus and Poisson, ratio, the following relation does not hold good a. E = 9KC/(3K+C) b. E = 2K(1-2/m) c.E= 2C(1+1/m) d. 1/m = (3K-2N)/(6K+2N) e.E = 3C(-1/m) 20. a steel rod of 2cm diameter and 5m long is subjected to an axial pull of 3000kg. If E = 2.1x106 kg/cm2 , the elongation of the rod will be a.2.275cm b.0.2275cm c. 0.02275cm d. 2.02275cm 21. If a steel rod of 20mm dia and 5m long elongates by 2.275mm when subjected to an axial pull of 3000kg , the stress developed is a. 9.5541kg/cm2 b. 95.541kg/cm2 c.955.41kg/cm2 d.9554.1kg/cm2 22.When two plates butt together and are riveted with cover plates with two rows of rivets, the joint is known as a.lap joint b. butt joint c. single riveted single cover butt joint d.double riveted double cover butt joint 23. If the rivets in djacent rows are staggered and the outermost row has only one rivet, the arrangement of the rivets, is called a. chain riveting b. zig-zig riveting c. diamond riveting d. none of the above 24. The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in the same row, is called a. pitch b. lap c. gauge d. staggered pitch 25. which one of the following statements is more appropriate to justify the failure of riveted joints a. tearing of the plates between the rivet hole and the edgeof the plate b. tearing of plates between rivets c. shearing of rivets d. crushing of rivets e. all the above Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 26. The diameter d of a rivet to suit the thickness(t) of a plate may be determined by Unwins formula a.d=6.05(t)1/2 b. d= 1.5t+4 c. d=(5t)1/2 d.d=t1/2 +1.5 27. The minimum number of rivets for the connection of a gusset plate,is a. 1 b.2 c.3 d.4 28. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section which passes through a. the first row b.the second row c. the central row d. one rivet hole of the end row 29. If b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting of diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is given by a. (b+d)/b b. (b-d)/b c. (d-b)/d d. (b-d)/d 30. In case of an eccentric loading on a bracket subjected to moment(M), the tangential force developed in any rivet, at right angles to its radius vector(r) is Mr/r2 31. which one of the following statements is incorrect. a. the cross-sectional area of the welded member is effective b. a welded joint has the strength of the parent metal itself c. welded joints provide rigidity d. welded joints have better finish e. the process of welding takes more time than riveting 32. The type of butt joints is common use is a. single inverted v-butt joint b. double v-butt joint c. double u-butt joint d. single v-butt joint 33. The maximum load to which a fillet joint of lengthL can be subjected to equals a. 0.7 x S x fillet size x L b. 2 x S x fillet size x L c. permissible shear stress x fillet size x L d. S x fillet size x L/3 34. The maximum resistance against rotation is offered by the weld at a point a. most distant b. least distant c. at either end d.centrally located Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 35.A long one principal plane subjected to maximum principal stress a. the maximum shear stress acts b. the minimum shear stress acts c. no shear stress acts d. none of the above 36.If the normal cross-section (A) of a member is subjected to a tensile forceP, the resulting normal stress in an oblique plane inclined at angle to transverse plane will be a.Psin2 /A b.Pcos2 /A c. Psin2/2A d. Pcos2/2A 37. If a member is subjected to tensile force P, having its normall cross-section(A) the resulting shear stress in an oblique plane inclined at an angle to its transverse plane, will be a. Psin2/A b.Psin2/2A c.Pcos2/2A d.Pcos2/A e. Asin2/P 38. The ratio of the tensile stress developed in the wall of a boiler in the circumferential direction to the tensile stress in the axial direction is equal to a.4 b.3 c.2 d.1 39. If tow tensile forces mutually perpendicular act on a rectangular parallelopiped bar are equal, the resultilng elongtion of the pipe,is 40. A bending moment may be defined as a. the arithimetic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section b. the rithmetical sum of the forces on either side of the section c. the algebraic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section d. none of the above 41. The shear for(F) and th ebending moment M at a section are related by a.F=My/I b. F = M/Z c. F = dM/dx d. F = MIx Where Z and I are the section modulus and moment of inertia of the section 42.at either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible transverse shear forces are a. one b.two c. three d. four e.zero 43. At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible bending moments are a. one b.two c. three d. four e.zero Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 44. a simply supported beam of a span L carries a udlW . the maximum bending moment M is equal to A.WL/2 B.WL/4 C.WL/8 D.WL/12 E.WL/16 45. A simply supported beam carries tow equal concentrated loads(W) at distances L/3 from either support. The maximum bending moment(M) introduced will be a. WL/3 b. WL/4 c. 5WL/8 d.3WL/10 e.3WL/5 46. A simply suppported beam of spanL carries a concentrated load W at it s midspan. The maximum bending moment(M) is equal to a. WL/2 B. WL /4 c. WL/8 d.WL/12 e. WL/16 47. The shape of the bending moment ove r the length of a beam having no external load , is always a. linear b. parabolic c. cubical d. circular 48. The shape of the bending moment over the length of a beam, carrying a udl is always a. linear b. parabolic c. cubical d. circular 49. The shape of the bending moment over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly varying load , is always a. linear b. parabolic c. cubical d. circular 50. The maximum bending moment due to moving load on a simply supported beam, occurs a. at the mid span b. at the supports c. under the load d. every where along the beam e. none of the above 51. For a simply supported beam with a central load, the bending moment will be a. lest at the centre b. lest at the supports c.maximum at the supports d.maximum at the centre 52. for a cantilever with udl (W) over its entire length(L) , the maximum bending moment will be a. WL b. WL/2 c.WL/3 d. W2L/2 e.WL2/3 Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 53. For a simply supported beam carrying udl W on its entire lengthL, the maximum bending moment will be a.WL/4 b.WL/8 c.WL/2 D.WL/3 e.WL/6 54. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force a. is maximum b. minimum c. is equal d. changes sign 55. For a beam of uniform strength, keeping its depth constant, the width will vary in proportion to a. bending momentM b.M1/2 c. M2 d.None of the above 56. A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if a. B.M. is same throughout the section b. Shear stress is same throught the section]\ c. Deflection is same throught the beam d. Bending stress is same at every section along its longitudinal axis 57. In a continous curve of bending moment, the point of zero B.M. , where it changes sign, is called\ a. the point of inflexion b. the point of contraflexure c. the point of virtual hinge d. all the above 58.In a simply supported beam(L) with triangular load(W) varying from zero at one end to the maximum value at the other end, maximum bending moment will be a. WL/3 b.WL/(93) c.WL/4 d.WL3/(93) e. WL/8 59.The following assumption relates to the theory of simple bending a. the value of the Youngs modulus is the same in tension as well as compression b. transverse section of the beam remains plane before and after bending c. the material of the beam is homogeneous and isotropic d. the resultant pull or thrust ana transverse section of the beam is zero e. all the above 60. A long the neutral axis of a simply supported beam a. the fibres do not undergo strain b. the fibres undergo minimum strain c. the fibres undergo maximum strain d. none of the bove Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 61.Pick up the incorrect statement from the following The radius of gyration of a rectangular section is proportional to a. square of the depth of the section b. square root of the inverse of the are c. square root of the moment of inertia d. square root of the area of the section e. none of the above 62. The ratio of th emoment of invertia of a circular plate to that of a square plate for equal depth,is a. less than one b.equal to one c. more than one d.equal to 6 e. none of the above 63. the section modulus of a section is proportional to a. area of the section b. square of the area of the section c. product of the area and depth d. product of the are and width e. half moment of inertia of the section 64. The shear force on a simply supported beam is proportional to a. displacement of the neutral axis b. sum of the forces c. sum of the transverse forces d. alglebraic sum of the transverse foces e. curvature of the neutral axis 65. Pick up the correct statement from the following a. the point through which the resultant of the shear stresses passes is known as shear centre b. instandard rolled channels, the shear centre is on the horizontal line passing through and away from the c.g. beyond web c. in equal angles, the shear centre is on the horizontal plane and away from the c.g.outside of the leg projection d. in T-sections, the shear centre is at the c.g. of the section e. all the above Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 66. Bending equation is a. M/I = R/E = F/Y b.I/M = E/R = Y/F c.M/I = E/R = F/Y d. M/I = R/E = Y/F 67. the intensity of direct longitudingal stress in the cross-section at any point distant r from the neutral axis is proportional to a. r b.1/r c.r2 d.1/r2 e.r3 68. The maximum compressive stress at the top of a beam was 1600kg/cm2 and the corresponding tensile stress at its bottom was 400kg/cm2 . If the depth of the beam was10cm, the neutral axis from the top will be a.2cm b.4cm c.6cm d.8cm e.10cm 69. a reinforced concrete beam is assumed to be made of a. homogeneous material b. heterogeneous material c. isotropic material d. none of the above 70. If the beam of constant section is subjected throughout its length to a uniform bending moment, it will bend to a. a circular arc b. a parabolic arc c. a catenary d. none of the above 71. The maximum deflection of a beam of lengthL simply supported at its ends with a central load W will be a. WL2/48EI b. W2L/24EI c. WL3/48EI d. WL2/8EI e. WL2/36EI 72. The ratio of the maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its end with an isolated centralload and that with udl over its entire length,is a.1 b.15/24 c.24/15 d.2/3 e.3/2 Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 73.The ratio of the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with an isolated load at its free end and with a udl over its entire length ,is a. 1 b.24/15 c.3/8 d.8/3 e.5/8 74. In a cantilever maximum deflection due to pure bending moment(M) at its free end,is a.ML2/3EI b.ML2/4EI c. ML2/6EI d. ML2/2EI e.ML2/5EI 75. A cantilever carries a udl (W) over its whole length and a force(W) acts at its free end upward. The net deflection of the free end will be a. 5WL3/24EI upward b. zero c. 5WL3/24EI downward d. none of the above 76.A cantilever carrying udl (W) over its full length is propped at its free end such that it is at the level of the fixed end. The bending moment will be zero at its free end and also at a. the mid point of the cantilever b. the fixed point of the cantilever c. the 1/4th length from free end d. the 3/4th length from free end e. the 1/2th length from free end 77. A simply supported beam which carries a udl over the whole span is propped at the cente of the span so tha the beam is heldto the level of the end supports, the reactionof the rop will be equal to a. half the distributed load b. 3/8th the distributed load c. distributed load d. none of the above 78. A uniform girder simply supported at its ends is subjected to a udl over its entire length, and is propped at the centre so as to neutralise the deflection. The net B.M . at the centre will be equal to a. WL b. WL/8 c. WL/24 d. WL/32 e. WL/64 Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 79. The moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to a bending moment, will be a a. triangle b. rectangle c.parabola e. cubic parabola 80. The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying linearly varying load from zero at its free end and maximum at the fixed end will be a a. triangle b. rectangle c. parabola d. cubic parabola 81. The moment diagram for a cantilever which is subjected to udl will be a a. triangle b. rectangle c. parabola d. cubic parabola 82. The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying concentrated load at its free end, will be a. triangle b. rectangle c. parabola d.cubic parabola 83. shear force diagram for a cantilever carrying a udl over its whole length,is a. rectangle b. triangle c. parabola d. cubic parabola 84.When a rectangular beam is loaded longitudinally, shear develops on a.bottom fibre b. top fibre c. midddle fibre d. every horizontal plane 85. when a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress develops on a. bottom fibre b. top fibre c. neutral axis d. every cross section 86. If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero then there B.M. is a. zero b. maximum c. minimum d. between maximum and minimum value e. none of the above 87. Hookes law states that stress and strain are a. directly proportional b.inversely proportional c. curvilinerly related. d. none of the above Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 88. a cantilever beam rectangular in cross section is subjected to an isolated load at its free end. If the width of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of a. 8 b. 1/8 c. d. 2 e. 3 89. A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-section is subjected to an isolated load at its free end. If the depth of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of a. 8 b. 1/8 c. d. 2 e. 3 90. If the length of a cantilever carrying an isolated load at its free end is douled, the defelection of the free end will increase by a.2times b.4times c. 8times b. times c. 3times 91. If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre is changed by a.1/2 b.1/8 c. 2 d.8 e.4 92. If the depth of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre, is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre will change by a factor of a. 2 b. c. 8 d. 1/8 e. 4 Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 93. If the width(b) and depth (d) of a beam simply supported with a central load are interchanged, the deflection at t he centre of the beam will be changed in the ratio of a. b/d b. d/b c. (d/b)2 d. (b/d)2 e. (b/d)3 94. The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported is a. directly proportional to its weight b. inversely proportional to its width c. directly proportional to the cube of its depth d. directly proportional to the cube of its length e. none of the above 95. Stress ina beam due to simple bending is a. directly proportional b. inversely prooportional c. curvilinearly related d. none of the above 96. For a beam, if fundamental equations of statistics are not sufficient to determine all the reactive forces at the supports, structure is said to be a. determinate b. statically determinate c. statically indetermiate Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 97. If a beam is supported so that there are only three unknown reactive elements at the supports. These can be determined by using the following fundamental equation of statistics a. H = 0 b. V = 0 c. H = 0,V = 0 d. H = 0.,V=0,M=0 e. M=0,H=0 98. For a beam having fixed end, the following unknown elements of the corresponding reactions are involved a. horizontal component at either end b. vertical component at either end c. horizontal component at one end and vertical component at the other d. horizontal and vertical components at both the ends 99. a long vertical member, subjected to an axial compressive load is called a. a column b. a strut c. a tie d. a stanchion e. all the above 100. the ratio of the effective length of a column and the minimum radius of gyration of its cross sectional area, is known a. buckling factor b. slenderness ratio c. crippling factor Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K Strength of Materials & Structural Design I Answers 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. b 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. e 26. a 27. b 28. d 29. b 30. Mr/r2 31. e 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. P/E (1-m) 40. c 41. c 42. a 43. e 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. d 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. a 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. e 60. a 61. d 62. d 63. c 64. c 65. e 66. c 67. a 68. d 69. b 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. d 77. c 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. c 82. a 83. b 84. d 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. b 90. c 91. a 92. d 93. d 94. c 95. a 96. c 97. d 98. d 99. a 100.b Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS 1. What are the methods available for analyzing the frames? 2. Which is the most important tool in obtaining influence line? 3. What type of structures can be analyzed by using Plastic analysis? 4. Write the Shape factor for rectangular & circular sections. 5. Which arch is statically determinate arch? 6. When the plastic hinge is form at a structure? 7. Where the maximum Bending moment due to wheel load on simply supported girder will occur? 8. Write the equation of parabolic arch of span l and rise h? 9. What is the horizontal deflection of a parabolic curved beam of span 10m and rise 3m when loaded with a udl 1t/m? 10. Which is the third support of a three hinged arch apart from its supports? 11. What is the horizontal reaction at the support of a three hinged arch of span 2l and rise h is hinged at the crown subjected to a central point load W? 12. What is the Verticall reaction at the support of a three hinged arch of span 2l and rise h is hinged at the crown subjected to a central point load W? 13. Where the shear centre will occur for a half circular section if radius r and constant thickness lies at x from centre? 14. What theorem is used in Mechanism method in Plastic Analysis? 15. How will you define the Upper Bound theorem 16. What is meant by influence line? 17. Write the column factor for a column fixed at base? 18. Write the expression to find column factor for each joint? 19. Name the nature of moving load. 20. What is the strain due to bending in the cantilever beam subjected to a point load of P? 21. What is the maximum bending moment at 0.4l from the left support of a simple beam of span l subjected to a moving load W? 22. What is the absolute bending moment of a simple beam of span l subjected to an moving couple M Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 23. What is the slope at a left support A of a single side ( right side ) overhanging beam ABC carries point load W at C, where AB=L AND BC=L/4? 24. Write the expression to find Plastic section modulus for a solid circular section. 25. List the basic methods of Plastic analysis. 26. What are Static Equillibrium equations? 27. How will you classify the methods of Analysis? 28. What is the necessity condition for a pin jointed structure to be a statically determinate? 29. When a rigid space frame is to be a statically determinate? 30. What is the degree of kinematic indeterminancy of a pin jointed frame? 31. What is a discrete structure? 32. Which is a linear element ia structure? 33. How will you classify the structures based on their redundancy? 34. Write the expression given by Castingliano's first theorem to determine the deflection component? 35. What is the sum of distribution factors of all the members meeting at any joint in moment distribution method 36. Write the carry over factor for a prismatic member with a fixed end? 37. What are the methods coming under the catagories of stiffness method? 38. What is the moment induced at the other end of a fixed beam oflength l and one end is sunk by amount o? 39. Write the stiffness factor for prismatic member. 40. What is meant by degree of freedom? 41. What is meant by flexibility of a member? 42. What is meant by Stiffness of a member? 43. When Degree of kinematic indeterminancy of the structure is high 44. Zero 45. Three moment theorem, method of consistant deformation etc., 46. 3m+r = 3j 47. Unit load apporach, strain energu approach, etc., 48. Stiffness matrix x flexibility matrix = unit matrix 49. 4EI/L 50. Axial shear, bending, torsion Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K Structural Analysis Answers 1. Portal method, Cantilever method 2. Muller Breslau Principle 3. Structures made of Ductile material 4. 1.5, 1.69 5. Three hinged arch 6. under yield stress 7. always under wheel load 8. y=4hx/l2(l-+) 9. 200/EI 10. anywhere in the rib 11. Wa/2h 12. Wa/2l 13. 4r / a 14. upper bound theorem 15. A load on the basis of an assumed mechanism will always be greater than equal totrue ultimate load 16. It is acurve whose ordinates represent to scale the variations of function such as shear force, bending moment, deflection etc., 17. ONE 18. c=1-g 19. it is a dynamic load 20. PL/6EI 21. 0.24Wl 22. M 23. Wl/24EI 24. d/6 25. Mechanism and Equilibrium methods 26. _H = 0, _V = 0, _M = =0 27. Force method & nDisplacement method 28. m = 2j-3 29. m+r=3j 30. 3j-2r 31. it is made of slendre members only 32. column element 33. Statically determinate, indeterminate and kinematically determinate ,indeterminate 34. M(cM/cP)dx/EI 35. greater than one 36. 5 37. Slope deflection method., moment distribution method etc,., 38. 6EIo/L2 39. I / L 40. Number of possible movements (translations & rotations) 41. Displacement produced due to applied unit force 42. Force required to produce unit displacement Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 43. When Degree of kinematic indeterminancy of the structure is high 44. Zero 45. Three moment theorem, method of consistant deformation etc., 46. 3m+r = 3j 47. Unit load apporach, strain energu approach, etc., 48. Stiffness matrix x flexibility matrix = unit matrix 49. 4EI/L 50. Axial shear, bending, torsion Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K CONCRETE STRUCTURES 1. The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends ti rise to the surface while placing and compaction, is known as a) Bleeding b) creep c) segregation d) shrinkage 2. The split strength of concrete is determined by a) Brazilion test b) vicats apparatus c) cube test d) briquettes test 3. The youngs modulus of concrete Ec is a) 1000Fck b) 5000\Fck c) 5000Fck d) 1000\Fck 4. Poissons ratio of concrete ranges from a) 0.10 and 0.15 b) 0.15 and 0.25 c) 0.25 and 0.30 d) 0.30 and 0.35 5. The grade of concrete not recommended by IS 456 is a) M15 b) M20 c) M25 d) M50 6. Slump test is a measure of a) Tensile strength b) compressive strength c) impact value d) consistency 7. Light weight concrete is used in a) heat resistance b) Airconditioning of buildings c) reducing thickness d) non load bearing wall 8. Minimum number of test specimens required for finding the compressive strength of concrete are a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) 9 9. If sea water is used for preparing concrete a) it will cause efflorescence b) it may corrode the reinforcement c) it will cause dampness d) all of the above 10. Steam curing is used in a) Columns only b) long slabs and column c) mass production of precast concrete d) all of the above 11. The two main basic materials are a) lime stone and silica b) lime and alumina c) lime and clay d) lime and chalk 12) Gypsum is added in cement for a) Setting b) cementing c) retarding the setting d) heat of hydration 13. Early strength of cement is caused by a) tricalcium silicate b) dicalcium silicate c) tricalcium aluminate d) gypsum aluminate Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 14. The ratio of youngs modulus of steel to that of concretre is a) Poisons ratio b) modular ratio c) bulk modulus d) elasticity 15. Low heat cement is preferred for a) slabs b) columns c) dams d) foundations 16. The ratio of 28 day strength of cube to that of a standard cylinder is a) 0.8 b) 1.25 c) 0.67 d) 1.00 17. According to IS code 2000, the modulus of elasticity of concrete mix M25 will be a) 25000N/mm2 b) 28500 N/mm2 c) 25500 N/mm2 d) 28000 N/mm2 18. Minimum clear cover to the main steel bars in slab, beam, column and footing respectively are a) 10,15,20,25 b) 15,25,40,75 c) 20,35,30,40 d) 20,35,40,75 19. In the limit state design of concrete structures the strain distribution is assumed to be a) linear b) nonlinear c) parabolic d) parabolic and rectangular 20. Loss of stress with time at constant strain in steel is called a) relaxation b) creep c) shrinkage d) ductility 21. A higher modular ratio shows a) higher compressive strength of concrete b) lower compressive strength of concrete c) higher tensile strength of concrete d) lower tensile strength of concrete 22. For a continousd slab if size 3m x 8.5m size,the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical deflection limits is a)5cm b)7.5cm c)10cm d)12cm 23. The neutral depth factor for M15 and mild steel reinforcement is a) 0.45 b) 0.43 c) 0.44 d) 0.4 24. In case of plain concrete in sea water grade of concrete should be atleast a) M 30 b) M15 c) M10 d) M20 25. The area of steel for B.M. = 75.77 x 10 6 N/mm, Depth = 545mm, st = 230 N/mm2; grade of concrete M15, is a)1050 mm2 b) 1150 mm2 c)1200 mm2 d)1000 mm2 26. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by a) slump test b) tensile strength test c) compaction factor test d) flexural strength test Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 27. The modulus of rupture is a measure of a) Direct tensile strength b) Split tensile strength c) Direct compressive strength d) flexural tensile strength 28. Segregation is responsible for a) honey comb concrete b) porous layers in concrete c) Sand streaks in concrete d) all of the above 29. M10 grade of concrete approximates a) 1:2:4 b) 1:3:4 c) 1:3:6 d) both (a) and (b) 30. Expansion joints are provided if the length of the concrete exceeds a) 20m b)45m c)60m d)75m 31. Which of the following stress must be limited to allowable stress in reinforced concrete? a) Principal stress b) combined bending and shear stress c) Normal stress d) torsional shear stress 32. The main reinforcement in RCC steel fibre is placed in ___________ 33. The set of load combinations used in uktimate strength design of RCC beams is 34. The minimum strength of concrete that can be used in water tanks is ____ 35. Grade of RCC in sea water shall not be less than _____ 36. The cube strength of concrete used for prestressing should not be less than _________ 37. Approximate ratio the strength of the cement concrete of 7dats to that of 28 days ____ 38. Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete is ________ 39. Placing of concrete should preferably be done at a temperature of ______ 40. Modulus of elasticity for concrete improves by a) Shorter curing period b) age c) higher w/c ratio d) all of the above 41. The main component of pozzolona is ____________ 42. In a load balanced prestressed concrete beam under self load the cross section is subjected to ____________________ 43. The loss of prestress due to shrinkage is the product of ___________ 44. For a pretensioned rectangular plank the uplift at centre on release of wires from anchors due to pretensioning only(force P,eccentricity e) will be __________ 45. In prestressed concrete structures , the prestressing of concrete is done to compensate the stresses caused by ______________ 46. A curved profile tendon in a prestressed concrete beam introduces _________ Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 47. Prestressed concrete is more desirable in case of ____________ 48. The deflection of simply supported beam in the roof over a class room is largest due to the effect of a) Creep b) dead load c) live load d) shrinkage 49. The stage at which the tendon force is released permanently on the concrete is called _____________ 50. Prestressing is most efficient when applied to ______ 51. The collapse of RCC section is normally due to _______ ____ 52. The transverse torsional reinforcement in RCC beams can be provided as a) like ties b) closed loops only c) open or closed loops d) helical loops only 53.The approximate average bond stress in RCC with plain bars is _______ 54. The magnitude of loss of prestress due to relaxation of steel is in the range of a) 0 to 1% b) 2 to 8% c) 8 to 12% d) 12 to 14 % 55. For a prestressed structural elements, high strength concrete is used primarily because ___________ 56. Limit state for serviceability for deflection including the effects due to creep, shrinkage and temperature occurring after erection of partitions and applications of finishes as applicable to floors and roofs is restricted to __________ 57. The most significant change that occurs in concrete after initial set, is that a) It starts handling b) it starts gaining strength c) it cannot be rehandled 58. The bulk density of aggregates depends _______ 59. The presence of entrained air results in a) Reduced bleeding b) lower density c) decreased strength at all ages 60. The behavior of concrete under instantaneous loads is a) Elastic b) plastic c) brittle d) visco-elastic 61. What are the factors influencing the strength of concrete? 62. What are the objectives of structural design? 63. What are the 3 methods available for the design of RC members? 64. Which concept leads the principle of equivalent area? 65. What is factor of safety? 66. What is the concept of ultimate load method? 67. What is characteristic compressive strength of concrete? 68. Why members are designed as under reinforced section? Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 69. What are the main components of flanged beam? 70. Which is the fundamental assumption of the flexural theory? 71. What is meant by bond? 72. Name the factors influence bond strength 73. What is column? 74. What is slenderness ratio? 75. What are factors influencing the behaviour and strength of slender column? 76. What are the design methods of slender column? 77. What are the purposes of footing? 78. What are the instability problems in footing? 79. Name the three modes of failure in eccentric compression members 80. What is meant by Fe 415 grade steel? 81. What are the types of steel available as reinforcement? 82. What is M20? 83. How many bars have to be provided in minimum for columns? 84. What is the advantage of prestressed concrete 85.What are the losses in post tensioned concrete 86.What is the minimum compressive strength required formpretensionede members? 87.What is the minimum compressi ve strength required for post tensioned members? 88.What should be the minimum cement content in pretensioned members? 89.What should be the minimum cement content in post tensioned members? 90.what is the ultimate tensile stength of high tensioned wires? 91.What is the total losses allowed in pretensioned members? 92.What is the total losses allowed in post tensioned members? 93.Which loads influence the deflections of prestressed concrete members? 94.What is Hoyer effect? 95.What is transmission length? 96.What are the factors influence the transmission length? 97.Where the bond stress is zero in pretensioned beams? 98.Why high strength steel wires are used in prestressed concrete? 99.What is the aim of stress analysis in the end block? 100.What is the size of the end block? 101.What is a propped composite construction? Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 102.What is the use of shear connectors in composite construction? 103.What is the general value of shrinkage strain adopted as per BIS 8110? 104.What is primary moment? 105.What is secondary moment? 106.What is a concordant cable? 107.Which prestressing system is widely used in pressure vessels? 108.When the prestressed concrete bridges are preferred? Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K Concrete Structures Answers 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. c 9. c 10. d 11. b 12. c 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. b 23. d 24. d 25. b 26. b 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. 31.normal stress 32. bottom fibre 33. DL+LL, DL+WL or DL+EL, and DL+PLL+WL or EL 34. M20 35. M20 36. 25 N/mm2 37. 0.56 38. 0.00003 39. 32C 40. a 41. Calcium chloride 42. axial and shear 43. modulus of elasticity of steel and shrinkage of concrete 44. PeL2 / 8EI 45. working load 46. compression, bending and shear 47. cylindrical pipe subjected to internal fluid pressure 48. b 49. transfer 50. strut 51. crushing of concrete 52. b 53. fck/15 54. b 55. both shrinkage and creep are more 56. span/350 Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 57. c 58. shape 59. b 60. b 61. Mix ratio, w/c ratio, size and grading of aggregate, temperature and humidity at the time of mixing, moulding and curing etc. 62. Stability, Strength, and Serviceability 63. Working stress method, Ultimate load method and Limit state method 64. Strain in steel = Strain in concrete 65. It is the ratio of ultimate stress or yield strength to allowable or safe stress 66. In the ultimate load method , the structural element is proportioned to withstand the ultimate load which is obtained by enhancing the service load by some factor referred to as load factor for giving a desired margin of safety 67. It is defined as the values of it strength below which it is not more than 5% of the test results are expected to fall 68. An under reinforced section is designed as the stress in steel reaches the maximum value first. So failure will take place after yielding of steel, with enough warning signal like excessive cracking and deflection taking place before ultimate failure 69. Compression flange, Tension steel, transverse steel in slab for integral action and stirrups for shear 70. Plane cross section remain plane before and after bending 71. In RC design, bond refers to the adhesion or the shear stress that occurs between concrete and steel in a loaded member 72. It is the bond between steel and concrete that enables the two materials to act together without slip 73. Local or flexural bond and anchorage bond 74. Types of steel, Diameter of bar, grade of concrete, cover to reinforcement 75. It is structural member provide to carry compressive load and whose effective length exceeds three times its lateral dimension 76. Slenderness ratio, degree of rotational and lateral restraints, eccentricity, grade of concrete and amount of reinforcement 77. Moment magnification method, Additional moment method and reduction factor method 78. To transmit the applied load effect and to ensure that the settlement is within the tolerable limit Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 79. Due to lateral loads on a structure, the following are the instability problems 1. Overturning and 2. Sliding 80. Fe 415 is a HYSD bar. Fe refers to steel and 415 representing the yield strength of the steel bar 81. Mild steel (Fe250), Medium tensile steel, High yield strength deformed steel (HYSD) (Fe 415), and HYSD (Fe 500) 82. M refers mix 20 refers characteristics compressive strength of concrete of 150mm size cube at 28 days 83. For square/rectangular column - minimum 4 bars, for circular column - minimum 6 bars 84.No tension 85.Loss due to friction and wobble, Anchorage slip 86. 42Mpa 87. 30MPa 88. 350 kg/cm2 89. 400kg/cm2 90.1600 Mpa 91.18% 92.15% 93.Imposed loads and self weight 94.Swelling of wires for a particular distance 95.Length needed for achieving uniform stress 96. diameter and surface characteristics of the wire, elastic properties of steel and concrete and the co eficient of friction between steel and concrete 97.At a distance equal to transmission length 98.To take up initial losses 99.To obtain the transverse tensile stress distribution. 100.Sqare shape of side equal to the width of the beam 101.The self weight of RCC slab in fresh stage is not transferred to prestressed beam 102.To overcome the differenshial shrinkage stresses 103.100 micro strains 104.Bending moment due to actual eccentricity of the tendons 105.Additional moments produced due to prestressing 106.Cable with zero eccentricity at the ends. 107.Freyssinet system 108.For spans exceeding 50m Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K HYDRAULICS AND FLUID MECHANICS 1. The mass pre unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called a. Specific weight b. mass density c. Specific gravity d. none of the above 2. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called a. Specific weight b. mass density c. Specific gravity d. none of the above 3. The specific weight of water in M.K.S. units is taken as a.1 gm/cm3 b.0.001kg/cm3 c.1000 kg/m3 d.1000 litres/m3 e. any one of the above 4. The specific weight of water is S.I units is taken as a.9.81 kN/m3 b.9.81x 103 N/m3 c.9.81x10-6 N/mm3 d.any one of the above e.none of the above 5. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of pure water at a standard temperature is called a. density of liquid b. specific gravity of liquid c. compressibility of liquid d. surface tension of liquid 6. The specific gravity of water is taken as a.0.001 b.0.01 c.0.1 d.1 7. The specific weight of sea water is ______ that of pure water. a. same as b. less than c. more than 8. The density of liquid in gm/cm3 is numerically equal to its specific gravity. a. True b. False 9. The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of pressure is called its a. surface tension b. compressibility c. capillary d. viscosity 10. The property of a liquid which enables it to resist tensile stress is called its surface tension. a. Agree b. Disagree 11. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube due to viscosity of water. a. True b. False Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 12. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube with an upward______ surface. a. Concave b.Convex 13. A glass tube of smaller diameter is used while performing an experiment for the capillary rise of water because a. It is easier to see through the glass tube b. Glass tube is cheaper than a metallic tube c. It is not possible to conduct this experiment with any other tube 14. The mercury does not wet the glass. This is due to the property of the liquid known as a. Cohesion b. adhesion c. viscosity d. Surface tension e. compressibility 15. With an increase in size of tube, the rise or depression of liquid in the tube due to surface tension will a. decrease b. increase c. remain unchanged d. Depend upon the characteristics of liquid 16. A glass tube of small diameter (d) is dipped in fluid. The height of rise or fall in the tube is given by a. iwd / cos b. cos / 4wd c.4cos /wd d.wd/4cos where w=Specific weight of liquid, = Angle of contact of the liquid surface, and = Surface tension 17. In the manufacturing of lead shots, the property of surface tension is utilised a. Agree b. Disagree 18. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature is that of water. a. same as b. lower than c. higher than 19. The unit of surface tension is a. kg/m3 b.kg/cm3. c.kg/m d.kgm 20. The viscosity of a liquid is due to cohesion of its particles. a. Correct b. Incorrect 21. The viscosity of a liquid________.its rate of flow through a hole in a vessel. a. effects b. does not effect 22. The viscosity of water is ______ Than that mercury. a. Higher b. lower Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 23. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of a. Surface tension of water b. Compressibility of water c. Capillary of water d. Viscosity of water 24. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is a. Directly proportional to the area of the vessel containing liquid. b. Directly proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface c. Directly proportional to the length of the vessel containing liquid d. Inversely proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface e. None of the above 25. The pressure intensity in kg/cm at any poin in a liquid is a. w b.wh c.w/h d.h/w where w = Specific weight of liquid, and h = Depth of liquid from the surface. 26. According to Pascals law, the intensity of pressure at any point in a fluid at rest is the same in all direction. a. Agree b. disagree 27. Water is ________ liquid. a. a compressible b. an incompressible 28. The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called a. Atmospheric pressure b. gauge pressure c. Absolute pressure d. mean pressure 29. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is a. 1.03kg/cm2 b. 10.3 m of water c. 760 mm of mercury d. all of the above 30. The density of air is as me at different heights. a. Correct b. Incorrect 31. When the pressure intensity at a point is more than the local atmospheric pressure, then the different of these two pressure is called a. Gauge pressure b. absolute pressure c. Positive gauge pressure d. vacuum pressure 32. When the pressure intensity at a point is less than the local atmospheric pressure, then the difference of these two pressures is called vacuum pressure. a. Agree b. Disagree Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 33. The vacuum pressure is always the negative gauge pressure a. Yes b. No 34. The absolute pressure is equal to a. gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure b. gauge pressure -- atmospheric pressure c. atmospheric pressure __ gauge pressure d. gauge pressure __ vacuum pressure 35. The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of a piezometer tube is a. Atmospheric pressure b. gauge pressure c. Absolute pressure d. vacuum pressure 36. The vacuum pressure can be measured with the help of a piezometer tube. a. True b. False 37. The pressure measured with the help of a piezometer tube is in a.kg/cm2. B.kg/m2 c.N/mm2 d.N/m2 e. head of liquid 38. A piezometer tube is used only for measuring a. low pressure b. high pressure c.moderate pressure d.vacuum pressure 39. The liquid used in manometers should have a. low density b. high density c.low surface tension d. high surface tension e. none of the above. 40. Manometer is used to measure a. velocity of liquid b. atmospheric pressure c. pressure in pipes and channels d. pressure in Venturimeter e. difference of pressure between two points in a pipe. 41. A manometer is used to measure a. low pressure b. moderate pressure c. high pressure d. atmospheric pressure 42. A manometer can be used to measure vacuum pressures a.Agree b.Disagree 43. A differential manometer is used to measure a. velocity of liquid b. atmospheric pressure c. pressure in pipes and channels d. Pressure in Venturimeter e. difference of pressure between two points in a pipe. Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 44. The total pressure on a horizontally immersed surface is a.w.A b.w x c.wAx d.wA / x e. w x / A Where w= Specific weight of the liquid A = Area of the immersed surface, and x = Depth of the centre of gravity of the immersed surface from the liquid surface. 45. The total pressure on an immersed surface inclined at an angle with the liquid surface is a.w.A b.w x c.wAx d.wAx / sin e. wAx / cos 46. The intensity of pressure on an immersed surface _______with the increase in depth a. Does not change b.increases c. decreases 47. The point at which the resultant pressure on an immersed surface acts, is knows as a.centre of gravity b. centre of depth c.centre of pressure d. centre of immersed surface. 48. The centre of pressure acts_________ the centre of gravity of immersed surface. a.at b.above c. below 49. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total pressure on the wall per unit length is a.wH b.wH/2 c.wH2/2 d.wH2/3 Where w= Specific weight of liquid and H = Height of liquid. 50. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total pressure on the wall acts at a distance________ from the liquid surface. a.H/3 b.H/2 c.2H/3 d.3H/4 51. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. Which of the following statement is correct? a. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is minimum. b. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is maximum. c. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is zero,and on the bottom of the wall is maximum. d. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is zero. e. None of the above. 52. When a vertical wall is subjected to a pressures due to liquid on both sides, the resultant pressure is the__________.of the two pressures. Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K a. sum b.differences c. arithmetic mean d. geometric mean e.none of the above 53. The water pressure per meter length on a vertical masonry wall of dam is a.wH/2 b.wH c.wH2/2. d.wH2/4. Where w= Specific weight of the liquid and H = Height of the liquid 54. The stability of a dam is checked for a.tension at the base b.overturning of the wall or dam c. sliding of the wall or dam d.all of the above e.none of the above. 55. When a body is placed over a liquid, it is subjected to gravitational force and upthrust of the liquid. a.True b.False 56. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if a. Gravitational force is equal to the upthrust of the liquid. b. Gravitational force is less than the upthrust of the liquid. c. Gravitational force is more than the upthrust of the liquid. d. None of the above. 57. When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted up by a force equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body. This statement is called, a. Pascals Law b.Archimedes principle c. Principle of floatation d. Bernoullis theorem. 58. The tendency of a liquid to uplift a submerged body, because of the upward thrust of the liquid, is known as buoyancy. a. Agree b.Disagree 59. The force of buoyancy is_______.the weight of the liquid displaced by the body. a. equal to b.less than c. more than 60. The body will float if the force of buoyancy is________the weight of liquid displaced a. equal to b.less than c. more than 61. The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is _________.the weight of the liquid displaced. a equal to b.less than c. more than 62. The centre of the gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called a.centre of pressure b. centre of buoyancy c.metacentre d. none of the above Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 63. The centre of buoyancy is the centre of area of the immersed body. a.Correct b.Incorrect 64. The buoyancy depends upon the a. pressure with which the liquid is displaced b. weight of the liquid displaced c. viscosity of the liquid d. compressibility of the liquid 65. When a body, floating in a liquid, is given a small angular displacement, it starts oscillating about a point known as a.centre of pressure b. centre of gravity c.centre of buoyancy d.metacentre e. none of the above 66. The line of action of the force of buoyancy acts through the centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced. a.True b.False 67. If a body floating in a liquid returns back to its original position, when given a small angular displacement, the body is said to be in a. neutral equilibrium b. stable equilibrium c. unstange equilibrium d. none of the above 68. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in stable equilibrium, if its metacentre coincides with its centre of gravity a.True b.False 69. A body floating in a liquid is said to be not in equilibrium if its metacentre lies below its centre of gravity. a. Agree b.Disagree 70. A submerged body is said to be not in equilibrium if its metacentre lies below its centre of gravity a. coincides With best regards b. lies below c. lies above. 71. A moving fluid mass may be brought to a static equilibrium position, by applying an imaginary inertia force of the same magnitude as that of the accelerating force but in the opposite direction. This statement is called, a. Pascals law b. Achimedes Principle c. D-Alemberts principle d. none of the above. Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 72. The quantity of a liquid flowing per second through a section of a pipe or a channel is called discharge and is measured in cumecs (m3/sec). a. True b. False. 73. One cubic meter of water weights a. 100 litres b. 250 litres c. 500 litres d. 1000 litres e. 1500 litres 74. One litre of water occupies a volume of a. 100cm2 b.250cm3 c.500 cm3 d.1000 cm3 e. 1500 cm3 75. When a liquid is flowing through a pipe, the velocity of the liquid is a. maximum at the centre and minimum near the walls b. minimum at the centre and maximum near the walls c. zero at the centre and maximum near the walls d. maximum at the centre and zero near the walls e. none of the above 76. If an incompressible liquid is continuously flowing through a pipe, the quantity of liquid passing per second is different at different sections. a. True b.False 77. A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path, and the paths of individual particles do not cross each other, is called a. Steady flow b. uniform flow c. streamline flow d. Turbulent flow e. none of the above. 78. A flow in which each liquid particle do not have a definite path and the paths of individual particles also cross each other, is called unsteady flow. a. Agree b. Disagree 79. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant, is called flow. a. Steady b. stream line c. turbulent 80. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is not constant, is called, a. Stream line flow b. turbulent flow c. Steady flow d. none of the above 81. A flow through a long pipe at constant rate is called a. Steady uniform flow b. steady non-uniform flow c. Unsteady uniform flow d. unsteady non-uniform flow 82. A flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate is called_______ uniform flow. a. Steady b.unsteady Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 83. A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called a. Steady uniform flow b. steady non-uniform flow c. Unsteady uniform flow d. unsteady non-uniform flow 84. A flow through an expanding tube at increasing rate is called unsteady non-uniform flow a. Yes b. No 85. A flow whose stream line is represented by a curve, is called a. One-dimensional flow b. two-dimensional flow c. Three-dimensional flow d. four-dimensional flow 86. A flow whose stream line is represented by a straight line, is called______dimensional flow. a. one b. two c. three d. four 87. In one dimensional flow , the flow a. Is uniform b.is steady and uniform c. takes place in straight line d. Takes place in curve e.takes place in one direction 88. In two-dimensional flow, the flow does not take place in a curve, a. True b.False 89. Bernoullis equation is applied to a. Venturimeter b.orifice meter c. pitot tube d. all of the above e. none of the above 90. Barometer is used to measure a. velocity of liquid b. atmospheric pressure c. pressure in pipes and channels d. difference of pressure between two points in a pipe 91. Venturimeter is used to a. measure the velocity of a flowing liquid b. measure the pressure of a flowing liquid c. measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe d. measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line 92. The length of the divergent cone in a Venturimeter is_____.__that of the convergent cone a. equal to b. double c.three to four times d.five to six times Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 93. In a Venturimeter the velocity of liquid at throat is_________.than at inlet a. higher b. lower 94. The pressure of liquid at throat in a Venturimeter is________.than that at inlet a. higher b.lower 95. The velocity of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a Venturimeter a. remains constant b.increases c. decreases d. depends upon mass of liquid e. none of the above. 96. The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion a. remains constant b.increases c. decreases d. depends upon mass of liquid e. none of the above. 97. In order to measure the flow with a Venturimeter, it is installed in a a. horizontal line b. vertical line c. inclined line with flow upwards d. inclined line with flow downwards e. in any direction and in any location 98. A Pitot tube is used to measure the a. velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe b. pressure difference between two points in a pipe c. total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe d. discharge through a pipe 99. When the Venturimeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will show_______.reading a. same b. more c. less 100. If a Pitot tube is placed with its nose upstream, downstream or sideways, the reading will be the same in every case. a. True b. False 101. Newton's law of viscosity relates a. intensity of pressure and rate of angular documentation 102. The condition of "No slip" at rigid boundaries is applicable to a. flow of Newtonian fluids only b. flow of ideal fluids only c. flow of all real fluids d. flow of non-Newtonian fluids Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 103. For a fluid, the shear stress was found to be directly proportional to the rate of angular deformation. The fluid is classified is a. Newtonian b. non-Newtonian c. Dilatant fluid d. thixotropic 104. The shear stress in a fluid flowing between two fixed parallel plates : a. is constant over the cross section b. is zero at the plates and increases linearly to the mid point c. is zero at the mid plane and varies linearly with distance from the mid plane. d. varies parabolically across the section 105. The piezometric head in a static liqui 1. remains constant in the horizontal direction 2. remains constant through out the fluid 3. varies only in vertical direction Out of above statement a. 1 & 2 are correct b.1 & 3 are correct c. Only 3 is correct d. Only 2 is correct 106. The pressure, in meters of oil of specific gravity 0.8, equivalent to 80m of water is a. 64 b.80 c.100 d.88 107. When a static liquid is subjected to uniform rotation in a container the free-surface assumes a shape of a. cone b. circular cylinder c. paraboloid of revolution d. ellipsoid of revolution 108. Flow at constant rate through a tapering pipe is 1. steady flow 2. uniform flow 3. unsteady flow 4. non-uniform flow Of the above statements a. 1 & 2 are correct b. 1 & 4 are correct c. 2 & 3 are correct d. 2 & 4 are correct 109. The existence of velocity potential in fluid flow indicates that a. the flow must be irrotational b. the flow is rotational and satisfies the continuity equation c. the velocity must be zero d. the circulation around any closed curve must have a finite value Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 111. Which of the following two dimensional incompressible velocity fields satisfies the conservation of mass? a. u = x, v = y b. u = -2x, v =2y c. u =xy, v =xy d. u= x2 y2, v=0 112. Identify the statement which is not correct a. the hydraulic grade line and the energy line are coincident for a body of fluid at rest b. whenever the hydraulic grade line falls below the center line of a conduit carrying liquid the local pressures are less than the reference atmospheric pressure c. the hydraulic grade line in a flow of real fluid with addition of energy will have an upward slope in the direction of flow d. the energy line in a flow of an ideal fluid with no addition of energy will always be horizontal 113. The co-efficient of discharge depends upon 1. reynolds number of flow 2. roughness of the surface 3. viscous resistance of fluid From the above statements a. 1 & 2 are correct b.2 & 3 are correct c. 1 & 3 are correct d. 1,2 & 3 are correct Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics Answers 1. b 2. a 3. e 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. True 9. B 10. Agree 11. False 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. c 17. Agree 18. c 19. c 20. Correct 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. Agree 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. Incorrect 31. c 32. Agree 33. Yes 34. a 35. b 36. False 37. e 38. c 39. d 40. c 41. c 42. Agree 43. e 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. c 48. c 49. c 50. c 51. c 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. True 56. c 57. b 58. Agree 59. a 60. c 61. b 62. b 63. Correct 64. b 65. d 66. True 67. b 68. False 69. Agree 70. b 71. c 72. True 73. d 74. d 75. a 76. False 77. c 78. Disagree 79. a 80. d 81. a 82. b 83. b 84. Yes 85. B 86. A 87. C 88. False 89. d 90. b 91. c 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. c 96. c 97. e 98. e 99. a 100. False 101. b 102. c 103. a 104. c 105. b 106. c 107. c 108. c 109. b 110. c 111. d 112. b 113. c Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING 1. A plot between rainfall intensity versus time is called as a. hydrograph b. mass curve c. hyetograph d. isohyet. 2. A hyetograph is a plot of a. cumulative rainfall Vs time b. rainfall intensity Vs time c. rainfall depth Vs duration d. discharge Vs time. 3. The Thiessen polygon is a. a polygon obtained by joining adjoining raingaguge stations b. a representative area used for, weighing the observed stations precipitations. c. an area used in the construction of depth area curves. d. the descriptive term for the shape of a hydrograph. 4. An isohyet is a line joining points having a. equal evaporation value b. equal barometric pressure c. equal height above the MSL. d. equal rainfall depth in a given duration 5. Wind speed is measure with a. a wind vane b. a heliometer c. stevenson box d. anemometer. 6. Evapotranspiration is confined a. to daylight hours b. night-time only c. land surfaces only d. none of these. 7. Lysimeter is used to measure a. infiltration b. evaporation c. evapotranspiration d. vapor pressure 8. Interception losses a. include evaporation through flow and stemflow b. consists of only evaporation loss c. includes evaporation and transpiration losses d. consists of only stemflow 9. The infiltration capacity of a soil was measure under fairly identical general conditions by a flooding type infiltrometer as ff and by a rainfall simulator as fr, one can expect a. ff = fr, b.ff > fr, c. ff < fr, d. no fixed pattern Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 10. The rainfall on three successive 6-h periods are 1.3, 4.6 and 3.1 cm. If the initial loss is 0.7 cm and the surface runoff resulting from the storm is 3.0 cm, the index for the storm is a. 0.450 cm/h b. 0.333 cm/h c. 0.392 cm/h d. 0.167cm/h. 11. A 6-h storm had 6 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 3 cm. If the index remains at the same value the runoff due to 12 cm of rainfall in 9h in the catchment is a. 8.0 cm b.4.5 cm c. 6 cm d. 7.5 cm 12. Direct runoff is made up of a. surface runoff, prompt inter flow and channel precipitation b. surface runoff, infiltration and evapotranspiration c. Overload flow only d. rainfall and evaporation. 13. A hydrograph is a plot of a. rainfall intensity against time. b. stream discharge against time c. cumulative rainfall against time d. cumulative runoff against time 14. The term base flow denotes a. delayed groundwater flow reaching a stream b. delayed groundwater and snow melt reaching a stream c. delayed groundwater and interflow a. the annual minimum flow in a stream Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K Water Resources Engineering Answers 1) c 2) b 3) b 4) d 5) d 6) d 7) c 8) b 9) b 10) c 11) d 12) a 13) b 14) aDepartment of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS 1. The rocks which are formed from molten magma are called a. sedimentary rocks b. igneous rock c. metamorphic rock d. none of the above 2. Therocks which are formed by gradual deposition are called a. sedimentary rocks b.igneous rock c. metamorphic rocks d. intrusive rocks 3. The rocks formed due to consolidation of weathered particles of the existing rocks are called a. sedimentary rocks b.igneous rock c. metamorphic rocks d. intrusive rocks 4. The rocks in which layers are visible are called a. stratified rocks b. foliated rocks c. instrusive rocks 5. The rocks having clay as their major constitutent are known as a. igneous rocks b. argillaceous rocks c. siliceours rocks d. calcareous rocks 6. A natural material of construction obtained from rocks by any suitable method is called a. brick b. stone c. timber d. iron 7. The color of a mineral in its powdered form is known as a. streak b. lustrue c.texture d. structure 8. Basic rocks are a. igneous rocks b. sedimentary rocks c. rocks containing salt and other minerals 9. Granite stone is a. igneous rocks b. sedimentary rocks c. metamorphic rocks d. none of the above 10. Rocks formed by gradual deposition are a. sedimentary rocks b. metamorphic rocks c. igneous rocks 11. Marble contains a. lime b. lime and silica c. silica Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 12. Marble is a. igneous rock b. metamorphic rock c. stratified rock d. sedimentary rock 13. Chemically marble is a a. calcareous rock b. silicious rock c. argillaceous rock d. none of the above. 14. Basalt is classified as a. extrusive igneous rock b.sedimenary rock c. metamorphic rock d. intrusive igneous rock 15. Quartzite is a. silicious rock b.argillaceous rock c. metamorphic rock d.calcarious rock 16. Sandstone is a.volcanic rock b.igneous rock c.metamorphic rock d.sedimentary rock 17. Sandstone mostly contains a. quartz b, lime and silica c. silica, alumina and lime 18. Most weather resisting metamorphic rock is a. lime stone b. slate c.marble d. quartzite 19. Which of the following is a mineral a. Quartizite b. Laterite c. Granite d. Calcite 20. Slate is formed from the metamorphic action on a. shale b.lime stone c. sand stone d. granite 21. Rocks having alunia as main constituent are called a. Calcareous rocks b. argillaceous rocks c. silicious rocks d. none of the above 22. The hardest rock is a. marble b. diamond c. talc d. quartz 23. The softest rock is a. marble b. diamond c. talc d. quartz 24. The specific gravity of marble is a. 2.5 b.2.6 d. 2.66 d. 2.72 25. Shingle is Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K a. decomposed laterite b. crushed granite c. water bound pebbles d. air weathered rock 26. Laterite is found in a. U.P b. Punjab c. West Bengal d. Kerala 27. Good quality stones must a. be durable b. be free from clay c. resist action of acids d. all the above 28. The size of modular bricks is a. 10X10X9 cm b. 19X19X9 cm c. 22,5X10X8.5 cm d. 22.5X8.0X9 cm 29. The frog of a brick is normally made on its a. top face b. bottom face c. longer side d. shorter side 30.Jhumb bricks are: a. under burnt b. over burnt c. kutcha d. none of the above 31. Clay and silt content in a good brick earth must be at least a.50% b. 40% c. 30% d.25% 32. The fire clay contains pure a. lime b. oxide of iron c. hydrated aluminum silicate d. magnesium 33. Sewer pipes are made of a. earthen ware b. stone ware c. refractory ware d. terracotta 34. A pug mill is used for a. softening brick earth b. moulding brick earth c. tempering brick earth d. providing brick earth 35. Lime mortar is generally made with a. quick lime b. fat lime c. hydraulic lime d. plain lime 36. The initial setting time of hydraulic lime is a. 30 mins b. 60 mins c. 90 mins d. 120 mins 37. Good quality of cement contains higher percentage of a. tri-calcium silicate b. di-calcium silicate Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K c. tri-calcium aluminate d. tetra calcium alumino ferrite 38. .Portland pozzolana cement possesses a. higher resistant to chemical attack b. lower heat of hydration c. lower shrinkage on drying d. water tightness e. all the above 39. The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of cement is a. slate b. sand stone c. lime stone d. basalt 40. Soundness of cement is caused by a. Vicat apparatus b. Le-chatelier apparatus c. compressive strength testing apparatus d. none of the these 41. Soundnass test of cement determines a. quality of free lime b. ultimate strength c. durability d. initial strength 42. In mortar, the binding material is a. cement b. sand c. surkhi d. cinder 43. Good quality of sand is never obtained from a.river b. nala c. sea d. gravel powder 44. Bulking of sand is caused due to a. surface moisture b. air voids c. viscosity d. clay contends 45. Strength of cement concrete primarily depends upon a. quality of water b. quantity of aggregate c. quantity of cement d. water-cement ratio 46. Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine a. strength b. durability c. workability d. water content 47. A badly mixed cement concrete results in a. segregation b. bleeding c. honey combing d. none of these 48. Seasoning of the timber is essential to remove a. knots from timber b. sap from timber Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K c. twisted fibre from d. roughness of timber 49. A piece of timber whose thickness and width are respectively 5 cm and 10 cm is called a. slate b. plank c. board d. strip 50. A well seasoned timber may contain moisture up to a. 4 to 6% b. 6 to 8% c. 8 to 10% d. 10 to 12% 51. The valuable timber is obtained from a. chair b. shisham c. sal d. teak 52. Teak wood is suitable for a. sports article b. furniture c. railway sleepers d. all the above 53. . Veneering means a. carving out designs on timber planks b. chemically treating timber planks c. thick layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood d. thin layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood. 54. Knots in timber are a. defects caused by crushing fibers b. splits radiating from the centre c. speckled strains d. signs of branches cutoff 55. Ply wood is made from a. common timber b. bamboo fibre c. teak wood d. asbestos sheets 56. The most commonly used base for iron and steel work is a. red lead b. zinc white c. white lead d. titanium white 57. Most commonly used solvent in oil paint is a. petroleum b. spirit c. coal-tar d. turpentine 58. Turpentine oil is used in paints as a. thinner b. vehicle c. base d. drier 59. The base material for distember is Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K a. chalk b. lime c. lime putty d. cement wash 60. French polish is a. oil paint b. distember c. spirit varnish d. none of these 61. In paints, the pigment is responsible for a. durability b. colour c. smoothness d. glassy face 62. Bitumen paints offer a. pleasing surface b. hard surface c. smooth surface d. protective surface 63. The most durable varnish is a. water varnish b. sprite varnish c. turpentine varnish d. oil varnish 64. . According to ISI, bitumen is classified into a. 2 grades b. 4 grades c. 6 grades d. 10 grades 65. Mastic asphalt is a. acid resisting material b. non-corrosive material c. corrosive material d. heating materials. 66. teel used in RCC work is a. stainless steel b. mild steel c. high carbon steel d. compressed steel 67. Stainless steel resists corrosion due to a. carbon b. sulphur c. vanadium d. chromium Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS ANSWERS 1. b 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. 1 8. 1 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. a 26. a 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. e 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. d 50. d 51. d 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. c 56. a Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. b 62. d 63. d 64. d 65. b 66. b 67. d Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K BUILDING CONSTRUCTION 1. In open test pit method of soil investigation a. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 10m b. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 15m c. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 20m d. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 25m e. The samples are never collected below ground water table 2. In open test pit method of soil investigation at least one test pit should be excavated for a. 1 sq.m area b. 10 sq.m area c. 10x10m area d. 15x15m area e. 100x100 m area 3. In standard penetration test method a. The outer diameter of the tube is 5cm b. The inner diameter of the is 3.5cm c. The length of tube is about 60cm d. The tube is driven into the ground with the help of a 63 kg weight falling through a distance of 175cm e. All the above 4. Which one of the following will have lowest bearing capacity? a. Hard rock b. Soft rock c. Moist clay d. Coarse sand, compact and dry e. Laminated rocks 5. The bearing capacity of hard rock without lamination and defects, for example granite trap and diorite may be expected to be a. 1.0kg/cm2 b. 2-5kg/cm2 c. 5-10kg/cm2 d. 10-20kg/cm2 e. 30-35kg/cm2 6. The bearing capacity of a soil can not be increased by Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K a. Chemical treatment b. Grouting c. Compacting d. Moistening the soil e. Drawing the moisture of soil. 7. In case of group of piles, for uniform distribution of load from walls to piles. a. The piles are connected at the bottom by iron rods b. The piles are connected at the top by wire ropes c. The piles are isolated so that load form one pile is not transferred to another pile d. The piles are connected at the top by a layer of concrete e. The depth of all piles is maintained constant. 8. The depth of lean concrete bed placed at the bottom of wall footing is kept. a. Equal to half the projection beyond the wall base b. Equal to the projection beyond the wall base c. Equal to double the projection beyond the wall base. d. 15cm e. 25cm 9. The maximum differential settlement, in case of foundation on sandy soils is generally limited to a. 1 mm b. 5 mm c. 10 mm d. 20 mm e. 25mm 10. In case of raft foundations on clayey soils, the maximum total settlement is usually limited to a. 400mm b. 200mm c. 150mm d. 100mm e. 50mm 11. A pile driven at an inclination to resist the inclined forces, is known as a. Angular friction pile b. Angular bearing pile c. Friction and bearing pile d. Sheet pile e. Battered pile 12. Piles are usually not made of Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K a. Timber b. Steel c. Stainless steel d. Reinforced cement concrete e. Battered pile 13. For have load, the mix used in case of pre cast concrete pile is a. 1 : 4 : 6 b. 1 : 3 : 6 c. 1 : 3 : 4 d. 1 : 2 : 4 e. 1 : 3 : 6 f. 1 : 1 : 6 14. In the case of rectangular foundation (width =B). the maximum permissible eccentricity of load is limited to a. B/12 b. B/8 c. B/6 d. B/4 e. B/3 Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K 15. The black cotton soil a. Has high bearing capacity b. Gives bad appearance to building due to clack colors c. Has negligible permeability d. Undergoes large volumetric change with moisture e. Is considered good soil for foundations. 16. If a foundation has failed, the probable cause could be a. Unequal settlement of subsoil b. Unequal distribution of weight of the structure c. Horizontal movement of earth adjoining the structure d. Transpiration of trees and shrubs e. Any of the above. 17. Quick sand a. Is the sand that immediately accepts moisture b. Is the sand that expands when moisture is added c. Condition is created in saturated thick layers of loose fine sand soils when distributed either due to vibrations or pressure of flowing d. Is pure silica and used un glass industry Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K BUILDING CONSTRUCTION Answers 1. e 2. d 3. e 4. c 5. e 6. d 7. d 8. b 9. e 10. d 11. e 12. c 13. e 14. c 15. d 16. e 17. c Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K SURVEYING 1. If the equatorial distance between two meridians is 100 km, their distance at 60 latitude will be (a) 1000 km (b) 800 km (c) 600 km (d) 500 km (e) 400 km 2. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. In a spherical triangle (a) Every angle is less than two right angles (b) Sum of the three angles is equal to two right angles (c) sum of the three angles is less than six right angles and greater than two right angles. (d) If the sum any two sides is pi, the sum of the angles opposite them is also pi (e) Sum of any two sides is greater than the third 3. According to Napier's Rules of circular parts for a right angled triangle, sine of middle part equals the product of (a) Tangents of the two adjacent parts (b) sines of the two adjacent parts (c) Cosines of the two adjacent parts (d) cosines of the two opposite parts (e) Both (a) and (b) above 4. In a spherical triangle ABC, right angled at C, sin b equals (a) sincsinB (b) cosccosB (c) tan a cotA (d )sin c cosB 5. In a spherical triangle ABC right angled at C. equals to (a)sincsinB (b) cosccosB (c)tan c tanB (d)sin c cosB 6. If S is the sum of three angles of a spherical triangle, the Spherical excess equals (a)S-90 (b)S-180 (c)S-270 (d)S-360 7. The great circle whose plane is perpendicular to the axis of Rotation of the earth, is called (a) equator (b) terrestrialequator (c) 0 degree latitude (d) al1 the above 8. The meridian of a place is (a) a great circle passing through the place and the poles (b) a great circle whose plane is perpendicular to the axis of rotation and also passes through the place (c) a semi circle which passes through the place and is terminated at the poles. (d) none of the above 9. Latitude of a place is the angular distance from, (a) Greenwich to the place (b) equator to the poles (c) equator to the nearer pole Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K (d) equator to the nearer pole along the meridian of the place (e) none of these. 10. Longitude of a place is the angular distance between the meridian, of the place and (a) the standard meridian (b) the international date line (c) that of Greenwich (d) both (a) and (c) of above 11. Longitudes are measured from O" to (a) 180" eastward (b)1800 westward (c)180 east or west (d) 360" eastward (e) 3600westward. 12. International date line is located along (a) standard meridian (b) Greenwich meridian (c) equator (d) 180 degree 1ongitude (e) none of these 13. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following (a) Latitudes north of the equator are ,taken as positive (b) Latitudes south of the equator are taken ,as negative (c) Longitude east of Greenwich are taken as negative (d) Longitudes west of Greenwich are taken as positive (e) Both (c) and (d) of the above 14. The length of a paraIlel of A latitude between two meridians is equal to difference in longitudes multiplied by (a) sin (b) cos (c) tan (d) cot 15. Pickup the correct statement from the following. (a) One degree of longitude has greatest value at the equator (b) One degree of longitude has greatest value at the pole (c) One degree of longitude has the same value every where (d) One degree of latitude decreases from the equator to the poles (e) One degree cf latitude has greatest value at the poles 16.Pick up the correct statement from the following. (a) one degree of longitude has greatest yalue at the equator (b) One degree of longitude has greatest valueat the equator (c) One degree of longitude is about 111 km at equator (d) One degree of latitude is about 111 km everywhere. (e) all the above 17. A nautical mile is (a) one minute arc of the great circle joining two p