Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A

Booklet Code No. :- iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&

4 9 1 3 3 8 ↑

Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l Code- 15MJEECLS02 (P–I) ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________ Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrkkj _____________________ dk fujhkd ds gLrkkj _____________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be

in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.

2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.

3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected.

4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it.

7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.

9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence.

10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

APTITUDE1. To mark 800th anniversary of Magna Carta (1215), four

surviving copies of the world most important documents of parliamentary democracy were recently brought together as a part of celebrations in: (1) Washington (2) Delhi (3) London (4) Kathmandu

1. eSXuk dkVkZ ¼1215½ dh 800oha o’kZxk¡B dks eukus ds fy;s lalnh; çtkra= ds bfrgkl esa fo”o ds lcls egRoiw.kZ pkj thfor çys[kksa dks

,d lkFk ykuk vHkh gky esa mRlo dk ,d fgLlk cukA ;g dgk¡

euk;k x;k%

(1) okf”kaxVu (2) fnYyh (3) yanu (4) dkBekUMw

2. The so called “bad” cholesterol in the serum is: (1) HDL (2) VLDL (3) LDL (4) All of these

2. rFkkdfFkr lhje esa [kjkc dksysLVªkWy gksrk gS%

(1) HDL (2) VLDL (3) LDL (4) ;s lHkh

3. The foremost cause of blindness in India, according to official data is: (1) Glaucoma (2) Diabetic Retiropathy (3) Cataract (4) Refractive error

3. “kkldh; vk¡dM+ks ds vuqlkj Hkkjr esa va/kkiu dk loZçeq[k dkj.k gS%

(1) Xywdksek

(2) Mk;csfVd jsVhjksisFkh

(3) eksfr;kfcUn

(4) viorZfud =qfV

4. Recently which ministry has launched two schemes namely–venture capital fund for S.C. and Green business scheme: (1) Ministry of Finance (2) Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment (3) Ministry of Commerce & Industry (4) Ministry of Minority affairs

4. gky gh esa fdl ea=ky; us nks ;kstuk,a vuwlwfpr tkfr ds fy;s

lkgfld iw¡th uhf/k ,oa gfjr O;kikj ;kstuk ykxw dh%

(1) foÙk ea=ky;

(2) lkekftd U;k; ,oa l”kfädj.k ea=ky;

(3) okf.kT; ,oa m|ksx ea=ky;

(4) vYila[;d ekeyksa dk ea=ky;

5. One of the pioneering robots, that went missing into space almost a decade ago, has been recently found on the surface of red planet. Name it: (1) Beagle 2 (2) Mars–2 Prop–M. Rover (3) Mars Rover (4) Spirit (MER–A)

5. çFke iFkçn”kZd jkscksV tks fd ,d n”kd iwoZ vUrfjk esa [kks x;k Fkk]

vHkh gky gh esa yky xzg ds lrg ij ik;k x;kA bldk uke crk,a%

(1) Beagle 2 (2) Mars–2 Prop–M. Rover (3) Mars Rover (4) Spirit (MER–A)

6. Who among the following were well known for their study on poverty in India: (1) V.M. Dandekar (2) Neel Kanth (3) Raghuram Rajan (4) (1) & (2) Both

6. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls Hkkjr esa xjhch ij v/;;u ds fy;s HkyhHkk¡fr

tkuk tkrk gS%

(1) oh-,e- MkaMsdj (2) uhy daB (3) j?kqjke jktu (4) nksuksa (1) ,o (2)

7. Who was appointed the first chief executive officer of National Institution for transforming India: (1) Arvind Panagariya (2) Bibek Debroy (3) Ms Sindhushree Khullar (4) Ms Saraswathi Menon

7. uhfr vk;ksx dk çFke eq[; ç”kklfud vf/kdkjh vHkh fdls fu;qä

fd;k x;k%

(1) vjfoUn iuxfM+;k

(2) fccsd nscjkW;

(3) lqJh flU/kqJh [kqYyj

(4) lqJh ljLoFkh esuu

8. Panchsheel agreement was signed between: (1) India & Bangladesh (2) India & China (3) India & Pakistan (4) India & America

8. iap”khy vuqcU/k ij gLrkkj fdu ns”kksa ds e/; gqvk%

(1) Hkkjr vkSj ckaXykns”k

(2) Hkkjr vkSj phu

(3) Hkkjr vkSj ikfdLrku

(4) Hkkjr vkSj vesfjdk

9. International Monetary Fund is headquartered at: (1) Washington (2) New York (3) Geneva (4) Paris

9. vUrZjk’Vªh; eqæk dks’k dk eq[;ky; dgk¡ gS%

(1) okf”kaxVu

(2) U;w;kdZ

(3) tsusok

(4) isfjl

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–1]

10. Contour lines on a map join places of: (1) Equal mean atmospheric pressure (2) Equal average temperature (3) Equal rainfall (4) Equal height above sea level

10. ekufp= ij leksPp js[kk,a fdu LFkkuksa dks tksM+rh gSa%

(1) leku ek/; okrkoj.kh; ncko

(2) leku vkSlr rkiØe

(3) leku o’kkZ

(4) leqæ Lrj ds Åij leku Å¡pkbZ

11. A writ, which is in the nature of command issued by the court asking a public authority to perform a public duty which it is bound to perform or to refrain from performing a particular act which it should not perform, is called: (1) Certiorari (2) Habeas corpus (3) Mandamus (4) Quo warranto

11. U;k;ky; kjk fuxZfer ,d lekns”k tks ,d daekM dh rjg fdlh

lkoZtfud çkf/kdkjh dks lkoZtfud dk;Z djus tks oks djus dks ck/; gS

rFkk fdlh dk;Z dks ugha djus dks tks mls ughas djuk pkfg,] dgk

tkrk gS%

(1) lfVZ;ksjkjh (2) gSfc;l dkiZl (3) eUMel (4) Doks okjUVks

12. The capillary action phenomenon of water climbing up a narrow tube dipped in water is due to: (1) Surface friction (2) Surface tension (3) Atmospheric pressure (4) Differential temperature

12. ty esa Mwch ,d ldjh uyh esa ikuh ds Åij p<+us dh ty dh

dsf”kdk fØ;k lao`fr dk dkj.k gS%

(1) i`’Bh; ?k’kZ.k

(2) i`’Bh; ruko

(3) okrkoj.kh; ncko

(4) vody rkiØe

13. The Present strength of Rajya Sabha members is ...... out of which ...... are representatives of states and union territories of Delhi and Puducherry and ...... are nominated by president: (1) 245, 233, 12 (2) 250, 238, 12 (3) 247, 235, 12 (4) 248, 236, 12

13. orZeku esa jkT;&lHkk lnL;ksa dh la[;k ------ gS ftlesa jkT;ksa ,oa

fnYyh la?k”kkflr ks= ,oa iqMqpsjh ds çfrfuf/kRo djus okys lnL;ksa dh

la[;k ------ gS ,oa ------ lnL; jk’Vªifr kjk euksfur fd;s x;s gSa%

(1) 245, 233, 12 (2) 250, 238, 12 (3) 247, 235, 12 (4) 248, 236, 12

14. As per the constitution of India, the state legislature shall consist of: (1) Governor, Legislative Council, Legislative Assembly (2) Governor, Legislative Assembly where there is no

legislative council (3) Chief Minister, Governor, Legislative Council,

Legislative assembly (4) Either (1) or (2)

14. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds vuqlkj jkT; fo/kku&lHkk esa “kkfey gksrk gS%

(1) jkT;iky] fo/kku ifj’kn] fo/kku&lHkk

(2) jkT;iky ,oa fo/kku&lHkk tgk¡ ij dksbZ Hkh fo/kku ifj’kn ugha gS

(3) eq[;ea=h] jkT;iky] fo/kku ifj’kn] fo/kku&lHkk

(4) ;k rks (1) ;k (2)

15. Garuda-V concluded recently, is a joint exercise between the air forces of India and: (1) Japan (2) Canada (3) Russia (4) France

15. x:M&V, tks gky gh esa lEiUu gqvk] Hkkjr dh ok;q lsuk ,oa fdl

ns”k ds e/; la;qä vH;kl Fkk%

(1) tkiku (2) dukMk (3) :l (4) Ýkal

16. 20 men can finish a work in 30 days. On completion of 10 days, 10 men leave work. Remaining men work for next 10 days. At the end of 20 days it is decided to complete the work in remaining 10 days. How many extra men are required: (1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 15 (4) 10

16. 20 vkneh fdlh dk;Z dks 30 fnu esa djrs gSA 10 fnu iwjs gksus ds ckn] 10 O;fä dk;Z NksM+dj pys tkrs gSA ckdh cps O;fä “ks’k 10 fnu rd dk;Z djrs gSaA 20 fnu dh lekfIr ij ;g fu.kZ; fy;k tkrk gS fd ckdh cpk dk;Z ckdh cps 10 fnuksa esa iwjk fd;k tk,A fdrus vfrfjä O;fä;ksa dh vko”;drk gksxh%

(1) 20 (2) 25 (3) 15 (4) 10

17. A machinist by increasing his normal rate of work by

%2112 could produce 15 items more, in a given period

of time. How many items can he produce if he works at 80% of his normal rate: (1) 100 (2) 90 (3) 80 (4) 96

17. ,d fn, x;s le; esa ,d dkjhxj vius dk;Z dk lkekU; nj

%2112 c<+kdj 15 oLrq,a T;knk iSnk dj ldrk gSA ;fn og vius

lkekU; nj ds 80% ij dk;Z djrk gS rks fdruh oLrq,a mRikfnr

djrk gS%

(1) 100 (2) 90 (3) 80 (4) 96

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–2]

18. The average age of 10 students is 15 years. When 5 new students joined, the average age rose by one year. The average age in years of the new students is: (1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 15 (4) 17

18. 10 fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh vkSlr vk;q 15 o’kZ gSA tc 5 u, fo|kFkhZ “kkfey fd, tkrs gSa rks vkSlr vk;q 1 o’kZ ls c<+ tkrk gSA u;s fo|kfFkZ;ksa dk vkSlr vk;q o’kks± esa D;k gksxk%

(1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 15 (4) 17

19. In an examination a student scores 1 mark for each correct answer and 0.25 marks are deducted for each wrong answers. If he attempts all 120 questions and secures 90 marks, the number of questions he attempts correctly is: (1) 100 (2) 106 (3) 96 (4) None of these

19. ,d ijhkk esa ,d fo|kFkhZ lgh mÙkj ds fy, 1 vad ikrk gS vkSj

0.25 vad dh dVkSrh xyr mÙkj ds fy, dh tkrh gSA ;fn og dqy

120 ç”u dk mÙkj nsrk gS vkSj 90 vad ikrk gS rks mlus dqy

fdrus ç”uksa ds mÙkj lgh fn;s%

(1) 100 (2) 106 (3) 96 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

20. The difference between 43 of 64 and

32 of 48 is equal

to: (1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 32 (4) 16

20. 64 dk 43 vkSj 48 dk

32 ds e/; vUrj gksxk%

(1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 32 (4) 16

21. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are: (1) 39, 30 (2) 41, 32 (3) 32, 33 (4) 43, 34

21. nks fo|kFkÊ ,d ijhkk esa lfEefyr gksrs gSaA muesa ls ,d fo|kFkÊ us

nwljs fo|kFkÊ ls 9 vad vf/kd çkIr fd, vkSj mldk vad nksuksa ds

vadksa ds dqy ;ksx dk 56% FkkA muds kjk çkIr fd, x, vad gSa%

(1) 39, 30 (2) 41, 32 (3) 32, 33 (4) 43, 34

22. The cost price of 19 mangoes is equal to the selling price of 16 mangoes. The gain percent is:

(1) %1793

(2) %

191515

(3) %4318

(4) 20%

22. 19 vkeksa dk ykxr ewY; 16 vkeksa ds fcØh ewY; ds cjkcj gS ykHk

çfr”kr gS%

(1) %1793

(2) %

191515

(3) %4318

(4) 20%

23. A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 9 cm contains a liquid. This liquid is to be filled into cylindrical shaped small bottles of a diameter 3 cm and height 4 cm. How many bottles will be needed to empty the bowl? (1) 45 (2) 54 (3) 35 (4) 48

23. 9 lseh- vkUrfjd f=T;k okys ,d v/kZ&xksyh; I;kys esa rjy gSA ;g

rjy csyukdkj vkdkj okys NksVh cksry ftldk O;kl 3 lseh- ,oa Å¡pkbZ 4 lseh- gS] esa Hkjk tkuk gSA I;kys dks [kkyh djus ds fy, fdruh cksryksa dh vko”;drk gksxh\

(1) 45 (2) 54 (3) 35 (4) 48

24. Which of the following is the rate percent per annum which would give difference in amount of interest equal to ` 20 for ` 1200 in 3 years and for ` 800 in 4 years? (1) 2.5 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) None of these

24. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk nj çfr”kr çfro’kZ gS tks fd 3 o’kZ esa ` 1200 ij ,oa 4 o’kZ esa ` 800 ij ` 20 dh C;kt ds jde dk vUrj nsxk\

(1) 2.5 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

25. In a class, the ratio of boys to girls is 4:5. Half of the boys and half of the girls participated in the youth festival.

61 , ie, 30 of the total student population

participated in the NCC camp. What is the number of girl students in the class? (1) 80 (2) 100 (3) 120 (4) 150

25. ,d dkk esa yM+dks ls yM+fd;ksa dk vuqikr 4:5 gSA vk/ks yM+ds ,oa

vk/kh yM+fd;ksa us ukStoku mRlo esa Hkkx fy;kA 61 tks fd dqy

fo|kFkÊ la[;k dk 30 gS] us NCC dSEi esa fgLlk fy;kA dkk esa

yM+fd;ksa dh la[;k D;k gS%

(1) 80 (2) 100 (3) 120 (4) 150

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–3]

26. Three wheels make 60, 36 and 24 revolutions per minute. Each has a red spot on its rim, which is at the lowest position at time zero. The red spot will all be at this position again after: (1) 2 seconds (2) 5 seconds (3) 4 seconds (4) None of these

26. rhu ifg;s 60, 36 ,oa 24 pôj çfrfeuV yxkrs gSaA çR;sd ds fje ij ,d yky nkx gSA tks fd “kwU; dky ij fuEure fLFkfr ij gSA

yky nkx iqu% mlh fLFkfr ij gksxk fdrus le; i”pkr%

(1) 2 lsds.M (2) 5 lsds.M (3) 4 lsds.M (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

27. If 2 logx (x–2) = logx 4, then the value of x is: (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

27. ;fn 2 logx (x–2) = logx 4, rks X dk eku D;k gS%

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

28. Which of the following in the largest number? (1) 31/3 (2) 51/5

(3) 21/2 (4) 71/7

28. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh lokZf/kd cM+h la[;k gS\

(1) 31/3 (2) 51/5

(3) 21/2 (4) 71/7

29. In a throw of two dice, the probability of getting a sum of 9 or 11 is: (1) 2/9 (2) 7/9 (3) 5/9 (4) None of these

29. nks ik¡lksa dh ,d Qsad esa vadksa dk ;ksx 9 vFkok 11 vkus dh

çkf;drk gksxh%

(1) 2/9 (2) 7/9 (3) 5/9 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

30. The triangle joining the points (2, 7), (4, –1), (–2, 6) is: (1) Equilteral (2) Right angled (3) Isosceles (4) None of these

30. fcUnqvksa (2, 7), (4, –1), (–2, 6) dks feykus ls cuk gqvk f=Hkqt

gksxk%

(1) leckgq

(2) ledks.k

(3) lefckgq

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

DIRECTIONS: For answering question, study diagram which is represented as follows and select the appropriate choice.

ABDE represents Artists FGHI represents Scientists JKLM represents Administrators OPQN represents healthy people

31. Scientists who are also artists but in not good state of health belong to the area: (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 9 (4) 10

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”ua ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, js[kkfp= dk v/;;u djus ds

i”pkr mfpr fodYi dk pquko djsaA

ABDE iznf”kZr djrk gS dykdkjksa dks FGHI çnf”kZr djrk gS oSKkfudksa dks JKLM çnf”kZr djrk gS ç”kkldksa dks

OPQN çnf”kZr djrk gS LoLFk O;fä dks

31. oSKkfud tks dykdkj Hkh gSa ysfdu LoLFk ugha gSa] fdl ks= ls

lEcfU/kr gSa%

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 9 (4) 10

DIRECTION: Select the suitable alternative to satisfy the relationship in the following question.

32. Buffalo : Leather : : Sheep: (1) Wool (2) Cotton (3) Fur (4) Silk

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u ls muds lEcU/kksa dks lUrq’V djus okys lgh fodYi

dks pqfu,A

32. HkSal % peM+k % % HksM+%

(1) Åu (2) dikl (3) Qj (4) js”ke

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–4]

DIRECTION: Select the choice out of the given choices which gives the given words in the correct alphabetical order.

33. Nasal, New, Nine, Noble: (1) Noble, New, Nasal, Nine (2) Nine, Noble, New, Nasal (3) Nasal, New, Nine, Noble (4) New, Nasal, Nine, Noble

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr fn;s gq, “kCnksa dks fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls vaxzsth o.kZekyk

ds vuqlkj lgh Øe esa vkus okys fodYi dk pquko djsaA

33. Nasal, New, Nine, Noble%

(1) Noble, New, Nasal, Nine (2) Nine, Noble, New, Nasal (3) Nasal, New, Nine, Noble (4) New, Nasal, Nine, Noble

34. Five students participated in an examination and each scored different marks. Naina scored higher than Meena. Kamla scored lower than praveen but higher than Naina. Anuj’s score was between Meena and Naina. Which of the following pairs represents the highest and the lowest scores respectively? (1) Praveen, Naina (2) Naina, Praveen (3) Praveen, Anuj (4) Praveen, Meena

34. ik¡p fo|kfFkZ;ksa us ,d ijhkk esa Hkkx fy;k vkSj çR;sd us fHké vad

vftZr fd;kA uSuk us ehuk ls T;knk vad vftZr fd;kA deyk us

çohu ls de ijUrq uSuk ls T;knk vad vftZr fd;kA vuqt dk vad

ehuk vkSj uSuk ds chp esa FkkA fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk tksM+k

Øe”k% mPpre ,oa fuEure vad n”kkZrk gS%

(1) çohu] uSuk

(2) uSuk] çohu

(3) çohu] vuqt

(4) çohu] ehuk

INSTRUCTIONS: In this question a piece of paper is folded and then cut as shown below. The dotted lines shown are the portion which have been folded. The curve arrow shows the directions of folding. And the number of scissors beneath the figure show the number of portions cut. From the given responses, indicate how it will appear when opened. The opening is in the same order as folding.

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u esa dkxt ds VqdM+s dks eksM+dj dkVk x;k gS] tSlk fd uhps n”kkZ;k x;k gSA fcUnq js[kk,a eksM+s gq, Hkkx dks çnf”kZr djrh gSaA oØkRed

rhj eqM+s Hkkx dh fn”kk dks n”kkZrk gSA fp= ds uhps nh xbZ dSafp;k¡ dVs gq, Hkkx dh la[;kvks dks n”kkZrh gSaA mÙkj fodYiksa esa ls ;s crk,a fd bl çfØ;k ds

vuqlkj bls [kksyus ij ;g dSlk fn[ksxkA eksM+us ds Øekuqlkj gh [kksyus dk Øe gksxkA

35. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½

35. (1) (2) (3) (4)

DIRECTIONS: At a public meeting there were 8 speakers A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Each spoke for some time according to the following scheme–

I. ‘A’ spoke after ‘F’ and took more time than ‘B’ II. ‘C’ spoke before ‘G’ and after ‘B’ and took less time

than E. III. ‘D’ spoke after ‘H’ and before ‘B’ and took less time

than ‘H’, but more time than ‘E’. IV. ‘H’ spoke after ‘A’ and took less time than ‘B’

36. Who spoke for the longest time? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

funsZ”k% ,d lkoZtfud lHkk esa A, B, C, D, E, F, G, ,oa H 8 oäk FksA

fuEufyf[kr ;kstuk ds vuqlkj çR;sd us dqN le; cksyk&

I. ^A* ^F* ds ckn cksyk vkSj ^B* ls T;knk le; fy;k II. ^C* ^G* ls igys cksyk ysfdu ^B* ds ckn vkSj ^E* ls de

le; fy;k

III. ^D* ^H* ds ckn cksyk vkSj ^B* ls igys ,oa ^H* ls de le;

fy;k ysfdu ^E* ls T;knk IV. ^H* ^A* ds ckn cksyk vkSj ^B* ls de le; fy;k

36. dkSu lcls T;knk le; cksyk%

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

DIRECTION: Some words have been coded but no specific code is indicated. Use your judgement to pick the coded word which represents the given word the best.

37. RECOMMEND: (1) 1 5 4 5 9 5 2 4 7 (2) 1 5 6 7 2 2 5 4 3 (3) 2 2 7 9 1 9 2 8 1 (4) 5 6 6 6 7 1 2 8 1

funsZ”k% dqN “kCnksa dks dwV Hkk’kk esa fy[kk x;k gS ysfdu mlds fy;s dksbZ

fuf”pr dwV fufnZ’V ugh gSA vki vius fu.kZ; kerk dk ç;ksx djrs gq,

dwV esa fy[ks gq, la[;k dks crk, tks ç”u esa fn;s gq, “kCn dks lokZf/kd

vPNh rjg ls iznf”kZr djrk gS%

37. RECOMMEND%

(1) 1 5 4 5 9 5 2 4 7 (2) 1 5 6 7 2 2 5 4 3 (3) 2 2 7 9 1 9 2 8 1 (4) 5 6 6 6 7 1 2 8 1

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–5]

38. If BAT = 69 and BOOK = 172, then PEN = ? (1) 66 (2) 105 (3) 144 (4) 183

38. ;fn BAT = 69 vkSj BOOK = 172, rks PEN = \

(1) 66 (2) 105 (3) 144 (4) 183

39. In a certain code language ‘bring the white board’ is written as ‘ka na di pa’ and ‘White and black board’ is written as ‘na di sa ra’. How is ‘the’ written in that code? (1) ka (2) pa (3) ka or pa (4) ra

39. fdlh fuf”pr dksM Hkk’kk esa ^bring the white board* dks ^ka na di pa* ,oa ^white and black board* dks ^na di sa ra* fy[kk tkrk gS rks ^the* dks ml dksM esa dSls fy[kk tk;sxk\

(1) ka (2) pa (3) ka or pa (4) ra

40. If M+N means M is brother of N, M/N means M is father of N and M×N means M is sister of N. Which of the following means A is uncle of B? (1) A / C x B (2) C x B / A (3) A + D / E / B (4) A + G / H x B

40. vxj M+N ek;us M HkkbZ gS N dk] M/N ek;us M firk gS N dk

rFkk MxN ek;us M cgu gS N dkA fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk ek;us

B dk pkpk A gS\

(1) A / C x B (2) C x B / A (3) A + D / E / B (4) A + G / H x B

41. JE, LH, OL, SQ, ____ (1) WV (2) WX (3) VW (4) XW

41. JE, LH, OL, SQ, -----

(1) WV (2) WX (3) VW (4) XW

42. ‘B’, the son of ‘A’ was wedded to ‘C’ where as ‘D’ was married to ‘E’. If E is the brother of ‘B’, how is ‘D’ related to ‘A’? (1) Daughter-in-law (2) Daughter (3) Sister (4) Cousin

42. ^B*] ^A* dk iq= gS ftldk ^C* ls fookg gqvk gS tcfd ^D* dk

fookg ^E* ls gqvk FkkA ;fn ^E* ^B* dk HkkbZ gS rks ^D* dk ^A* ls

D;k laca/k gS\

(1) cgw

(2) iq=h

(3) cgu

(4) ppsjh cgu@HkkbZ

43. Sonu starts from his home towards the South. After walking for 60 m, he turns right and goes for 40 m. He turns right again and walks for 80 m before turning left. He then walks for 30 m and reaches his school. How far is his school from his home and in which direction? (1) 10√43 m, North East (2) 10√13 m, North West (3) 10√53 m, North West (4) None of these

43. lksuw vius ?kj ls nfk.k dh vksj pyuk çkjEHk djrk gSA 60 eh- pyus ds ckn og nk,¡ eqM+dj 40 eh- pyrk gSA og iqu% nk,¡ eqM+rk gS ,oa ck,¡ eqM+us ls igys 80 eh- pyrk gSA fQj og 30 eh- pydj vius fo|ky; igq¡prk gSA mldk fo|ky; mlds ?kj ls fdruh nwjh

ij ,oa fdl fn”kk esa gS\

(1) 10√43 eh-] mÙkj&iwoZ (2) 10√13 eh-] mÙkj&if”pe (3) 10√53 eh-] mÙkj&if”pe (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

DIRECTIONS: In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

44. 4, 9, 21, 49, 101 (1) 21 (2) 49 (3) 101 (4) None of these

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr la[;k Ja[kyk esa ,d la[;k xyr gSA xyr la[;k dks

Kkr djsaA

44. 4, 9, 21, 49, 101 (1) 21 (2) 49 (3) 101 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

45. Pick the odd one out. (1) Copper (2) Tin (3) Zinc (4) Brass

45. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vlaxr dks pqfu,%

(1) rk¡ck

(2) Vhu

(3) tLrk

(4) ihry

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–6]

TECHNICAL APTITUDE46. The ratio of voltage and current in a closed circuit:

(1) Varies (2) Remains constant (3) Increases (4) Decreases

46. cUn ifjiFk esa oksYVrk ,oa /kkjk dk vuqikr%

(1) ifjorÊ gksrk gS

(2) fLFkj jgrk gS

(3) c<+rk gS

(4) ?kVrk gS

47. Energy consumed by a heater of rating 1000 watts by operating it for a period of 2 hours will be: (1) 1 unit (2) 2 unit (3) 2.5 unit (4) 4 unit

47. 1000 okWV jsfVax okys ,d ghVj dks nks ?kaVs rd çpkfyr djus ij blds kjk miHkksx dh xbZ ÅtkZ gksxh%

(1) 1 bZdkbZ (2) 2 bZdkbZ (3) 2.5 bZdkbZ (4) 4 bZdkbZ

48. A 100 watt 100V lamp is to be operated on 250volt supply, the value of additional resistance to be connected in series will be: (1) 250 ohms (2) 100 ohms (3) 150 ohms (4) None of these

48. ,d 100 okWV 100 oksYV ySEi dks 250 oksYV vkiwfrZ ij çpkfyr

fd;k tkrk gS] J¡`[kyk esa vkc) vfrfjä çfrjks/k dk eku gksxk%

(1) 250 vksºe

(2) 100 vksºe

(3) 150 vksºe

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

49. Which electrical device is used to reduce the arc produced between conductors: (1) Capacitor (2) Resistance (3) Diode (4) Transistor

49. pkydksa ds e/; mRié fd;s gq, vkdZ dks ?kVkus ds fy, dkSu&lh oS|qr

;qfä ç;qä gksrh gS%

(1) /kkfj=

(2) çfrjks/k

(3) Mk;ksM

(4) VªkaftLVj

50. What is the name of the instrument used to measure the specific gravity of a battery: (1) Pyrometer (2) Hydrometer (3) Lactometer (4) Fuel gauge

50. cSVjh ds fof”k’V xq:Ro dks ekius ds fy, ç;qä midj.k dk uke D;k

gS%

(1) ikbjksehVj (2) gkbMªksehVj (3) ySDVksehVj (4) Qw,y xst

51. What is the unit of torque of a DC Motor in SI unit: (1) Kilogram-meter (2) Newton-centimeter (3) Joule (4) Newton per meter

51. SI bZdkbZ esa DC eksVj ds cy vk?kw.kZ dh bZdkbZ gS%

(1) fdyksxzke&ehVj

(2) U;wVu&lsaVhehVj

(3) twy

(4) U;wVu çfrehVj

52. To calculate the power factor which of the following is odd one: (1) True power/apparent power (2) P/VI (3) R/Z (4) V/I

52. “kfä xq.kd dk ifjdyu djus esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d fo’ke gS%

(1) lR; “kfä@ okLrfod “kfä

(2) P/VI (3) R/Z (4) V/I

53. Which type of connection in 3 phase transformer is used for the substation end of the transmission line: (1) Star-star (2) Star-delta (3) Delta-delta (4) Delta-star

53. lEçs’k.k ykbZuksa ds mi&LVs”ku Nksjksa gsrq f=dyk VªkalQkeZj esa dkSu&lk

vkc) ç;qä gksrk gS

(1) LVkj&LVkj (2) LVkj&MsYVk (3) MsYVk&MsYVk (4) MsYVk&LVkj

54. No load loss of a transformer has two components. They are eddy current and hysteresis loss. In which part of a transformer hystersis will occur: (1) Core (2) Breather (3) Transformer oil (4) Conservator

54. ,d VªkalQkeZj ds “kwU; Hkkj gkfu esa nks vo;o gSaA og ,ìh /kkjk ,oa

fgLVsjsfll gkfu;k¡ gSaA fdl fgLls esa fgLVsjsfll mRié gksxk%

(1) dksj

(2) czhFkj

(3) VªkalQkeZj vkW;y

(4) dUtjosVj

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–7]

55. What principle makes the instrument transformer working: (1) Self induction (2) Lenz law (3) Mutual induction (4) Fleming’s right hand rule

55. dkSu&lk fl)kUr VªkalQkeZj midj.k dks dk;Z”khy cukrk gS%

(1) Lo çsj.k

(2) ysat dk fu;e

(3) ikjLifjd çsj.k

(4) ¶ysfeax dk nkfgus gkFk dk fu;e

56. What is the fuse rating of 10 HP, 3 Phase 415V squirrel cage inductor motor: (1) 15 A (2) 35 A (3) 25 A (4) None of these

56. 10 HP f=dyk 415 oksYV okyh fiatjh çsj.k eksVj dh ¶;wt jsfVax D;k gksxh%

(1) 15 A (2) 35 A (3) 25 A (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

57. A single-phase preventer trips frequently in the motor. What is the reason for it: (1) Improper phase sequence (2) Low supply voltage (3) Abnormal fluctuation in the voltage (4) Relay of signal phase prevention is not energized

57. ,d eksVj esa ,dy dyk okyh çhosUVj ckj&ckj fVªi gksrh gSA bldk

D;k dkj.k gS%

(1) vuqfpr dyk vuqØe

(2) fuEu vkiwfrZ oksYVrk

(3) oksYVrk esa vlkekU; mrkj&p<+ko

(4) ,dy dyk çhosU”ku dh fjys dks “kfä ugha nh xbZ

58. In a shaded pole motor the phase displacement occur by: (1) Centrifugal switch (2) Shading rings (3) Capacitor (4) Main pole winding

58. Nk;kfdar /kzqoh eksVj esa dyk foLFkkiu ?kfVr gksrk gS%

(1) vidsUæh fLop kjk

(2) “ksfMax fjaXl kjk

(3) /kkfj= kjk

(4) eq[; /kzqo okbZfUMax kjk

59. In a bridge rectifier the input and output connections are interchanged. What will happen if supply is switched on: (1) DC output will be very low (2) DC output reduces to half the rated value (3) All the diodes will get over heated (4) Causes short circuit

59. ,d lsrq jsfDVQk;j esa vkxr ,oa fuxZr vkca/ku vnys&cnys tkrs gSaA

vkiwfrZ dks fLop vkWu djus ij D;k ?kfVr gksxk%

(1) DC fuxZr cgqr fuEu gksxk

(2) DC fuxZr jsVsM eku ls ?kVdj vk/kk gks tk;sxk

(3) lHkh Mk;ksM~l vfr mf’er gks tk;saxs

(4) “kkWVZ lfdZV gks tk;sxk

60. In voltage regulated power supply, which type of diode is used: (1) PN junction diode (2) Zener diode (3) Light emitting diode (4) Tunnel diode

60. oksYVrk fofu;fer “kfä vkiwfrZ esa fdl çdkj dk Mk;ksM ç;qä gksrk

gS%

(1) PN taD”ku Mk;ksM

(2) t+huj Mk;ksM

(3) çdk”k mRltÊ Mk;ksM

(4) lqjax Mk;ksM

61. For long distance line, voltage is measured in: (1) Volt (2) Millivolt (3) Kilovolts (4) Microvolt

61. yEch nwjh dh ykbZuksa gsrq oksYVrk dk ekiu gksrk gS%

(1) oksYVrk esa (2) feyhoksYV esa (3) fdyksoksYV esa (4) ekbZØksoksYV esa

62. When testing an electric iron on megger, the reading of the megger is infinity. This indicates: (1) Short circuit of heating element (2) Short circuit of supply terminals (3) Open circuit of heating element (4) Loose terminal connection

62. tc ,d fo|qr vk;ju dks ehxj ij VsLV djrs gSa rks ehxj dk iBu

vuUr gksrk gSA ;g lwfpr djrk gS%%

(1) m’eh; rUrqvksa dk “kkWVZ lfdZV

(2) vkiwfrZ VfeZuy dk “kkWVZ lfdZV

(3) m’eh; rUrqvksa dk eqä ifjiFk

(4) <hyk VfeZuy vkca/ku

63. The rotor of an alternator has: (1) Four slip rings (2) Three slip rings (3) Two slip rings (4) No slip rings

63. vYVjusVj ds ?kw.kZd esa gksrk gS%

(1) pkj fLyi fjaXl

(2) rhu fLyi fjaXl

(3) nks fLyi fjaXl

(4) dksbZ fLyi fjaXl ugha

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–8]

64. Which of following prevents the damage to a transformer due to lightning: (1) Bulchcholz relay (2) Conservator (3) Breather (4) Horn gap

64. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk vklekuh fctyh fxjus ij VªkalQkeZj dks

i¡gqpus okyh kfr ls jksd&Fkke djrk gS%

(1) cqYdksYt+ fjys (2) dUtjosVj (3) czhFkj (4) gkWuZ xSi

65. Step up transformer increase: (1) Power (2) Power factor (3) Frequency (4) Voltage

65. LVsi vi VªkalQkeZj c<+krk gS%

(1) “kfä (2) “kfä xq.kd

(3) vko`fÙk (4) oksYVrk

66. The function of breather in a transformer is: (1) To provide air for cooling of coils (2) To prevent moisture when outside air enters the

transformer (3) To filter transformer oil (4) To improve the efficiency of transformer

66. VªkalQkeZj esa czhFkj dk dk;Z D;k gS%

(1) dqaMyh dh “khryu gsrq ok;q çnku djuk

(2) vkæZrk jksduk tc ckgjh ok;q VªkalQkeZj esa ços”k djrh gS

(3) VªkalQkeZj vkW;y dks Nkuuk

(4) VªkalQkeZj dh nkrk esa lq/kkj ykuk

67. Starting torque of a three-phase squirrel cage induction motor at rated voltage is: (1) 30% to 40% of the rated torque (2) The rated torque (3) 100% to 200% of the rated torque (4) 5 to 7 times of the rated torque

67. fu/kkZfjr oksYVrk ij ,d rhu Qst okyh fiatjh çsj.kh dk çkjfEHkd

cy vk?kw.kZ gS%

(1) fu/kkZfjr cy vk?kw.kZ dk 30% ls 40% rd

(2) fu/kkZfjr cy vk?kw.kZ

(3) fu/kkZfjr cy vk?kw.kZ dk 100% ls 200% rd

(4) fu/kkZfjr cy vk?kw.kZ dk 5 ls 7% xquk

68. Speed control of a cage induction motor using slip control is implemented using: (1) Pole changing (2) Stator frequency control (3) Cascade control (4) Stator voltage control

68. fLyi fu;U=.k dk ç;ksx djrs gq, fiatjh çsj.k eksVj dk xfr fu;U=.k

dk;kZUo;u buesa ls fdldk ç;ksx djrs gq, fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) iksy cnydj

(2) LVsVj vko`fÙk fu;U=.k

(3) lksikuh fu;U=.k

(4) LVsVj oksYVrk fu;U=.k

69. No load current of a three-phase squirrel cage induction motor at rated voltage is: (1) 30% to 50% of the rated current (2) The rated current (3) 5% to 10% of the rated current (4) 5 to 7 times of the rated current

69. fu/kkZfjr oksYVrk ij fdlh f=dyk fitajh çsj.kh eksVj dh 'kwU; Hkkj

/kkjk gksrh gS%

(1) fu/kkZfjr /kkjk dh 30% ls 50%

(2) fu/kkZfjr /kkjk

(3) fu/kkZfjr /kkjk dk 5% ls 10%

(4) fu/kkZfjr /kkjk dk 5 ls 7 xquk

70. A synchronous motor is running at unity power factor at full load. If load on its shaft is reduced to half value, its new power factor will be: (1) Unity (2) Leading (3) Lagging (4) Uncertain

70. ,d rqY;dkfyd eksVj iw.kZ Hkkj ij ,dd 'kfä xq.kd ij py jgh gSA

;fn blds 'kS¶V ij Hkkj v/kZeku rd de dj fn;k tk, rks bldk

u;k 'kfä xq.kd gksxk%

(1) ,dd (2) vxzrk

(3) i”prk (4) vfuf”prk

71. In the figure A and B are two semiconductor diodes.

Which of the following statement is true: (1) A and B are forward biased (2) A is forward biased and B is reverse biased (3) A and B are reverse biased (4) A is reverse biased and B is forward biased

71. fp= esa A ,oa B nks v/kZpkyd Mk;ksM gSaA

fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS%

(1) A ,oa B vxz vfHkufr esa

(2) A vxz vfHkufr gS ,oa B O;qRØeh; vfHkufr gS

(3) A ,oa B O;qRØeh; vfHkufr gSa

(4) A O;qRØeh; vfHkufr gS ,oa B vxz vfHkufr gS

72. Power factor in an industry can be improved by: (1) Transformers (2) Capacitors (3) Inductors (4) Stabilizers

72. fdlh m|ksx ds 'kfä xq.kkad esa buesa ls fdlls lq/kkj fd;k tk ldrk

gS%

(1) VªkUlQkeZj (2) la/kkfj= (3) çsjd (4) LFkkbZdkjh

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–9]

73. Which rectifier requires four diodes: (1) Half wave rectifier (2) Full wave rectifier (3) Full wave bridge rectifier (4) Voltage quadrupler

73. dkSu ls jsfDVQk;j esa pkj Mk;ksM ç;ksx fd;s tkrs gSa%

(1) v/kZ rajx jsDVhQk;j

(2) iw.kZ rajx jsDVhQk;j

(3) iw.kZ rjax fczt jsDVhQk;j

(4) oksYVrk prq’d

74. Which of the following is not the same as watt? (1) Joule / Sec. (2) (Ampere)2X ohm (3) (Volt)2 /ohm (4) Volt / Ampere

74. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d okWV dh rjg ugha gS\

(1) Joule / Sec. (2) (Ampere)2X ohm (3) (Volt)2 /ohm (4) Volt / Ampere

75. The capacitive reactance of the circuit with the increase in supply frequency: (1) Increases (2) Decreases (3) Remains Constant (4) Unpredictable

75. vkiwfrZ vko`fÙk esa o`f) ds lkFk ifjiFk dh /kkfjrk çfr?kkr%

(1) c<+rh gS

(2) ?kVrh gS

(3) fLFkj jgrh gS

(4) Hkfo";ok.kh ugha dh tk ldrh

76. Lap winding is most suitable for: (1) Low voltage, low current machine (2) High voltage, high current machine (3) Low voltage, high current machine (4) High voltage, low current machine

76. ySi okbZfUMax lcls T;knk mi;ksxh gksrk gS%

(1) fuEu oksYVrk] fuEu /kkjk e'khuksa gsrq

(2) mPp oksYVrk] mPp /kkjk e'khuksa gsrq

(3) fuEu oksYVrk] mPp /kkjk e'khuksa gsrq

(4) mPp oksYVrk] fuEu /kkjk e'khuksa gsrq

77. A 3–phase supply feeds a load consisting of three equal star connected resistors. If one of the resistors is removed, the load power is: (1) Reduced by 25 %. (2) Reduced by 33.3 %. (3) Reduced by 50 %. (4) Reduced by 66.6 %.

77. ,d f=&dyk vkiwfrZ ,d Hkkj dk Hkj.k djrk gS ftlesa rhu leku

LVkj vkc) çfrjks/kd gSaA ;fn ,d çfrjks/kd dks gVk fn;k tkrk gS]

rks Hkkj 'kfä%

(1) 25% ls ?kV tkrh gS

(2) 33.3% ls ?kV tkrh gS

(3) 50% ls ?kV tkrh gS

(4) 66.6% ls ?kV tkrh gS

78. The induction cup structure is used in the: (1) Differential relays (2) I.D.M.T relays (3) Time delay relays (4) Mho relays

78. çsj.k di lajpuk fdlesa ç;qä gksrh gS%

(1) foHksnh fjys (2) I.D.M.T fjys (3) VkbZe fMys fjys (4) Mho fjys

79. The measurement range of an ammeter can be increased by using a: (1) High resistance in shunt (2) Low resistance in shunt (3) High resistance in series (4) Low resistance in series

79. ,ehVj ds ekiu ijkl dks fdldk ç;ksx djds c<+k;k tk ldrk gS%

(1) ik'oZ iFk esa mPp çfrjks/k

(2) ik'oZ iFk esa fuEu çfrjks/k

(3) Js.kh esa mPp çfrjks/k

(4) Js.kh esa fuEu çfrjks/k

80. The voltage of domestic supply is 220 V A.C. This represents: (1) Peak value (2) RMS value (3) Average value (4) Mean value

80. ?kjsyw vkiwfrZ dh oksYVrk gS 220 A.C.A ;g çfrfuf/kRo djrk gS% (1) 'kh"kZ eku (2) vkj-,e-,l eku

(3) vkSlr eku (4) ek/; eku

81. Demand Factor is defined as: (1) Maximum load / average load (2) Average load / maximum load (3) Maximum load / total connected load (4) Total connected load / maximum load

81. ek¡x xq.kd ifjHkkf"kr fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) vf/kdre Hkkj@vkSlr Hkkj

(2) vkSlr Hkkj@vf/kdre Hkkj

(3) vf/kdre Hkkj@dqy vkc) Hkkj

(4) dqy vkc) Hkkj@vf/kdre Hkkj

82. Ω (ohm) is the unit of: (1) Current (2) Resistance (3) Voltage (4) None of these

82. Ω ¼vksºe½ fdldh ,d bdkbZ gS%

(1) /kkjk (2) çfrjks/k (3) oksYVrk (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–10]

83. The three fundamental quantities are: (1) Mass, length, time (2) Momentum, force, volume (3) Mass, force, time (4) Mass, pressure, height

83. rhu ekSfyd ifjek.k gS%

(1) iq¡t] yEckbZ] le;

(2) laosx] cy] vk;ru

(3) iq¡t] cy] le;

(4) iq¡t] nkc] Å¡pkbZ

84. One mega ohm equals to: (1) 106Ω (2) 10–6Ω (3) 103Ω (4) 108Ω

84. ,d esxk vksºe ------ ds cjkcj gksrh gS%

(1) 106Ω (2) 10–6Ω (3) 103Ω (4) 108Ω

85. The inter pole winding is connected in series with: (1) Armature (2) Field coil (3) Shunt field (4) None

85. bUVjiksy okbfMax lhjht esa fdlls tqM+h gksrh gS%

(1) vkesZpj (2) QhYM Dokby (3) 'kaV QhYM (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

86. The power factor of a pure capacitive circuit is: (1) Maximum (2) Unity (3) 0.8 leading (4) Zero

86. 'kq) /kkfjrk lfdZV dk 'kfä xq.kd gksrk gS%

(1) vf/kdre

(2) bdkbZ

(3) 0.8 vxzrk

(4) 'kwU;

87. If ten resistances of 10 ohms each are connected in parallel, the total resistance will be: (1) 100 Ω (2) Less than 100 Ω (3) 1 Ω (4) None of these

87. ;fn 10 vksºe~ ds 10 çfrjks/k lekukUrj esa vkc) gSa rks dqy

çfrjks/k fdruk gksxk%

(1) 100 Ω (2) 100 Ω ls de (3) 1 Ω (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

88. The function of a starter in a d.c. motor is to: (1) Reduce voltage (2) Insert resistance in field circuit (3) Insert resistance in armature circuit (4) Control the speed

88. ,d d.c. eksVj esa LVkVZj dk dk;Z gS% (1) oksYVrk ?kVkuk

(2) ks= ifjiFkksa esa çfrjks/k Mkyuk

(3) vkesZpj ifjiFkksa esa çfrjks/k Mkyuk

(4) xfr ij fu;a=.k

89. The open circuit test at rated voltage is performed on a transformer to determine its: (1) Regulation (2) Efficiency (3) Iron losses (4) Copper losses

89. ifj.kkfe= ij [kqys&ifjiFk dk ijhk.k fd;k tkrk gS] bldh%

(1) fofu;e fudkyus ds fy,

(2) nkrk fudkyus ds fy,

(3) ykSg gkfu;ksa ds fy,

(4) rkez gkfu;ksa ds fy,

90. A fuse is inserted in: (1) Phase wire (2) Neutral wire (3) Earth continuity conductor (4) None of these

90. fdlesa ¶;wt dks Mkyrs gSa%

(1) Qst rkjksa esa

(2) U;wVªy rkjksa esa

(3) vFkZ fujUrjrk pkyd esa

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

91. When external circuit is open, on moving the handle, the pointer of a megger indicates: (1) Zero (2) Very low resistance (3) Very high resistance (4) Infinity

91. tc okº; ifjiFk [kqyk gks] rks gSfUMy ds ?kqekus ij esxj dk Iokb±Vj

bafxr djrk gS%

(1) 'kwU;

(2) cgqr fuEu çfrjks/k

(3) cgqr mPp çfrjks/k

(4) vlhfer

92. The power in an unbalanced 3–phase 4–wire circuit can be measured by using a ________ method: (1) 4 wattmeter (2) 3 wattmeter (3) 2 wattmeter (4) 1 wattmeter

92. ,d vlarqfyr 3-Qsl 4-Rkkj ifjiFk esa fo|qr dks ---------- fof/k dk iz;ksx djds ekik tk ldrk gS%

(1) 4 okVehVj (2) 3 okVehVj (3) 2 okVehVj (4) 1 okVehVj

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–11]

93. Which of the following insulator will be selected for high voltage applications?: (1) Strain (2) Suspension (3) Pin (4) Egg

93. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fo|qrjks/kh mPp oksYVrk vuqiz;ksxksa ds fy, NkaVk

tk,xk\

(1) LVªsu (2) lLisa”ku (3) fiu (4) ,x

94. If an induction type energy meter runs fast, it can be slowed down by: (1) Lag adjustment (2) Light load adjustment (3) Adjusting the position of braking magnet and making it

come closer to the centre of the disc (4) Adjusting the position of braking magnet and making it

move away from the centre of the disc

94. ;fn dksbZ izsjd dksfV dh ÅtkZ eksVj rst Hkkxrh gS rks fuEu kjk

mldh xfr /kheh dh tk ldrh gS%

(1) i”p lek;kstu

(2) gYdk yksM lek;kstu

(3) czsfdax pqacd dh fLFkfr lek;ksftr djuk vkSj bls fMLd ds e/;

ds fudV ykuk

(4) czsfdax pqacd dh fLFkfr lek;ksftr djuk vkSj bls fMLd ds e/;

ls nwj gVkuk

95. In a transistor, leakage current mainly depends on: (1) Doping of base (2) Size of emitter (3) Rating of transistor (4) Temperature

95. ,d VªkaftLVj esa kj.k /kkjk eq[;r% fuEu ij fuHkZj djrh gS%

(1) csl dk eanu

(2) mRltZd dk vkdkj

(3) VªkaftLVj dh jsfVax

(4) rkieku

96. A line which connects a distributor to substation is called: (1) Distributor (2) Feeder (3) Line (4) Service main

96. tks ykbu ,d fMLVªhC;wVj dks lc&LVs”ku ls tksM+rh gS] dgykrh gS%

(1) fMLVªhC;wVj

(2) QhMj

(3) ykbu

(4) lfoZl esu

97. A double squirrel cage induction motor has two: (1) Rotors moving in opposite direction (2) Parallel windings on rotor (3) Parallel windings on stator (4) Series windings in stator

97. ,d ffiatjh izsjd eksVj esa gksrs gSa%

(1) foijhr fn”kkvksa esa pyus okys nks jksVj

(2) jksVj ij nks lekukarj okbafMax

(3) LVSVj ij lekukarj okbafMax

(4) LVSVj esa Js.kh okbafMax

98. An exciter is nothing but a: (1) d.c. shunt motor (2) d.c. series motor (3) d.c. shunt generator (4) d.c. series generator

98. ,d mRrstd fuEu ds vykok dqN ugha gksrk%

(1) dc “kaV eksVj (2) dc Js.kh eksVj (3) dc “kaV tsujsVj (4) dc Js.kh tsujsVj

99. The frequency of ac supply is increased keeping impressed voltage of a transformer constant. It core loss will: (1) Increase (2) Decrease (3) Not change (4) Depends upon the design of transformer

99. fdlh Vªk¡lQkeZj dh vkjksfir oksYVrk dks fLFkj j[kus ds fy, ac vkiwfrZ dh vko`fÙk dks c<+k;k tkrk gSA bldh dksj kfr%

(1) c<+sxh

(2) ?kVsxh

(3) dksbZ ifjorZu ugha gksxk

(4) Vªk¡lQkeZj dh fMtkbu ij fuHkZj djrk gS

100. A three-phase induction motor has 2 poles and operates with a slip of 0.05 with 50 Hz supply for a certain load. The speed of the rotor with respect to stator is: (1) 3000 rpm (2) 300 rpm (3) 2850 rpm (4) 0 rpm

100. rhu Qst okyh ,d çsj.kh eksVj esa 2 /kzqo gSa vkSj fuf”pr yksM ds

fy, ;g 50 Hz vkiwfrZ lfgr 0.05 dh fLyi ds lkFk pyrh gSA LVsVj ds lEcU/k esa ?kw.kZd dh xfr gS%

(1) 3000 rpm (2) 300 rpm (3) 2850 rpm (4) 0 rpm

101. The presence of ac source inductance in rectifiers effectively leads to: (1) Increase in output dc voltage (2) Reduction in the load current ripples (3) Increase in the load current ripple (4) Reduction in output dc voltage

101. fn’Vdkfj;ksa esa ac lzksr çsjdRo dk gksuk çHkkoh :i ls buesa ls fdldh vksj ys tkrk gS%

(1) fuxZe dc oksYVrk esa o`f)

(2) yksM /kkjk ÅfeZdkvksa esa deh

(3) yksM /kkjk ÅfeZdk esa o`f)

(4) fuxZe dc oksYVrk esa deh

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–12]

102. The pulse width modulation control technique in inverters is used for: (1) Voltage control (2) Frequency control (3) Harmonic reduction (4) Voltage control and harmonic reduction

102. çrhidks esa LiUn foLrkj ekMqyu fu;U=.k rduhd dk ç;ksx buesa ls fdlds fy, fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) oksYVrk fu;U=.k

(2) vko`fÙk fu;U=.k

(3) lauknh U;wuhdj.k

(4) oksYVrk fu;U=.k rFkk lauknh U;wuhdj.k

103. Which one of following logic gates is a universal logic gate: (1) NOT (2) AND (3) NAND (4) EX-OR

103. fuEukafdr rdZ xsVksa esa dkSu lk lkfoZd rdZ xsV gS%

(1) NOT (2) AND (3) NAND (4) EX-OR

104. Which one of following logic family ICs is fastest: (1) TTL (2) ECL (3) CMOS (4) DTL

104. buesa ls dkSu lk rdZ ifjokj ICs rhczre gS%

(1) TTL (2) ECL (3) CMOS (4) DTL

105. An RLC series circuit is resonating at 150 Hz, its impedance at 50 Hz will be: (1) Inductive (2) Capacitive (3) Only resistive (4) Dependent on RLC elements values

105. ,d RLC Js.kh ifjiFk 150 Hz ij vuqukn dj jgk gS rks 50 Hz ij bldh çfrck/kk gksxh%

(1) çsjf.kd

(2) /kkfjrk

(3) dsoy çfrjks/kd

(4) RLC rRoksa ds eku ij fuHkZj gS

106. Power transformers are designed with: (1) Low leakage reactances (2) High leakage reactances (3) High all day efficiency (4) Low full load voltage regulation

106. “kfä Vªk¡lQkeZlZ vfHkdfYir fd, tkrs gSa%

(1) fuEu kj.k çfr?kkr

(2) mPp kj.k çfr?kkr

(3) lkjs fnu mPp dq”kyrk

(4) fuEu iw.kZ Hkkj oksYVrk fu;eu

107. Digital computer can be made using: (1) Flip-flops (2) Tuned amplifiers (3) Operational amplifiers (4) Linear amplifiers

107. buesa ls fdldk ç;ksx djds fMftVy dEI;wV~j cuk;k tk ldrk gS% (1) f¶yi&¶ykWIl

(2) leLofjr ço/kZd

(3) lafØ;kRed ço/kZd

(4) jSf[kd ço/kZd

108. In a four-phase variable reluctance type stepper motor, stator consist 8 poles and rotor has 6 poles. The step angle will be: (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 15° (4) 10°

108. pkj Qst okyh ifjorZuh; çfr’VEHk çdkj dh LVSij eksVj esa LVsVj esa 8 iksy gSa tcfd jksVj esa 6 iksy gSaA rks LVsi dks.k gksxk%

(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 15° (4) 10°

109. Moving iron instruments can be used: (1) To measure dc currents only (2) To measure ac currents only (3) To measure ac voltage only (4) To measure ac and dc currents and voltages

109. py eki ykSg ;a=ksa dk ç;ksx fd;k tk ldrk gS% (1) dsoy dc /kkjk ekius ds fy, (2) dsoy ac /kkjk ekius ds fy, (3) dsoy ac oksYVrk ekius ds fy, (4) ac vkSj dc /kkjk rFkk oksYVrk ekius ds fy,

110. No load test on a three-phase squirrel cage induction motor at rated voltage is performed to obtain: (1) Stator and rotor resistance and reactance (2) Series branch parameters of equivalent circuit (3) Copper and core losses (4) Shunt branch parameters of equivalent circuit

110. ,d rhu&Qsl okys LDoSjy fiatjh çsjd eksVj ij fu/kkZfjr oksYVrk nj Hkkj ghu ijhk.k fd;k tkrk gSA blls çkIr fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) LVsVj vkSj jksVj dh çfrjks/kdrk rFkk çfrdkRedrk

(2) leku ifjiFk ds Js.kh “kk[kk dkjdksa dks

(3) rk¡ck vkSj ØksM gkfu

(4) leku ifjiFk ds “kaV “kk[kk dkjdksa dks

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–13]

111. Equivalent resistance between point A and B in following figure is:

(1) 10 Ohm (2) 12.4 Ohm (3) 6.8 Ohm (4) 16 Ohm

111. fuEufyf[kr fp= esa fcUnq A ,oa B ds e/; ledk çfrjks/k gksxk%

(1) 10 Ohm (2) 12.4 Ohm (3) 6.8 Ohm (4) 16 Ohm

112. The rated torque at starting with minimum possible stator current of a three-phase squirrel cage induction motor can be achieved by: (1) Changing stator voltage (2) Changing frequency of stator supply (3) Changing frequency and voltage of stator supply (4) Changing poles on stator

112. fuEure lEHkkfor LVsVj fo|qr /kkjk ij ,d rhu&Qsl okys LDoSjy fiatjh çsjd eksVj dh vk?kw.kZ nj çkIr dh tkrh gS%

(1) LVsVj oksYVrk dks ifjofrZr djds

(2) LVsVj vkiwfrZ dh vko`fÙk dks ifjofrZr djds

(3) LVsVj vkiwfrZ dh vko`fÙk vkSj oksYVrk dks ifjofrZr djds

(4) LVsVj ij /kzqoksa dks ifjofrZr djds

113. A salient pole synchronous motor is running at no load. Its excitation is reduced to zero: (1) It will stop (2) It will remain running at synchronous speed (3) It will loose synchronism (4) It is uncertain

113. ,d lSfy;aV /kzqo rwY; eksVj fcuk fdlh Hkkj ij py jgh gSA bldh mÙkstuk “kwU; rd fxj tkrh gS] rks%

(1) ;g :d tk;sxh

(2) rqY; pky ij gh pyrh jgsxh

(3) bldh rqY;rk lekIr gks tk;sxh

(4) ;g vfuf”pr gS

114. A delta/delta connected three-phase transformer can be connected in parallel with: (1) Star/delta (2) Delta/star (3) Star/star (4) Star/zigzag

114. ,d MsYVk@MsYVk la;ksftr rhu Qsl okys VªkalQkeZj dks lekukUrj esa tksM+k tk ldrk gS%

(1) LVkj@MsYVk ls (2) MsYVk@LVkj ls (3) LVkj@LVkj ls (4) LVkj@Vs<+s&es<+s O;oLFkk ls

115. In a 60 km underground power transmission system, the best transmission system is: (1) Single-phase ac system (2) Three-phase ac system (3) High voltage ac voltage system (4) dc transmission system

115. ,d 60 fdeh- Hkwfe ds vUnj fo|qr çs’k.k O;oLFkk esa] loksZÙke fo|qr

çs’k.k O;oLFkk gS%

(1) ,d&Qsl dh ,-lh- O;oLFkk

(2) rhu&Qsl dh ,-lh- O;oLFkk

(3) mPp oksYVrk dh ,-lh- O;oLFkk

(4) Mh-lh- çs’k.k O;oLFkk

116. The excessive neutral current is caused by: (1) Fans (2) Refrigerators (3) Electronic ballasts (4) Coolers

116. vfrfjä vkos”k gkfu dk dkj.k gS%

(1) ia[ks (2) jsfÝtsjsVj (3) bySDVªkWfud ckykLV (4) dwyj

117. Three-phase AC supply system compared to single-phase AC supply system has the advantage: (1) High power factor (2) High efficiency (3) Low cost (4) None of these

117. rhu Qsl okys ,-lh- vkiwfrZ O;oLFkk ,dy&Qsl ,-lh- vkiwfrZ O;oLFkk

dh rqyuk esa ykHknk;d gS%

(1) mPp “kfä xq.kkad dk (2) mPp nkrk dk (3) fuEu nke dk (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

118. The fastest response is provided by: (1) Moving coil instruments (2) Moving iron instruments (3) Hall effect instruments (4) Electrostatic instruments

118. rhozre çfrfØ;k çnku fd;k tkrk gS% (1) py dqaMyh midj.k kjk

(2) py ykSg midj.k kjk

(3) v/kZ çHkkoh midj.k kjk

(4) bysDVªksLFkSfrd midj.k kjk

119. In the welding, the used DC generator is known as: (1) Series (2) Shunt (3) Cumulative compound (4) Differential compound

119. osfYMax esa ç;qä Mh-lh- tfu= dks tkuk tkrk gS%

(1) Js.kh tSlk (2) “kaV tSlk (3) lap;h feJ.k tSlk (4) vUrj.k feJ.k tSlk

120. The ferranti effect is observed in: (1) dc lines (2) ac lines (3) Telephone lines (4) Network lines

120. QsjkUrh çHkko ns[kk tkrk gS% (1) Mh-lh- ykbZu esa (2) ,-lh- ykbZu esa (3) VsyhQksu ykbZu esa (4) usVodZ ykbZu esa

SET02P1 [4 9 1 3 3 8 ] ECL [A–14]

egRoiw.kZ% fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA

1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k

fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zoskd dks lwfpr djsa

vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA

egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj-

mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh ,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk

fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k

tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA

2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mÙkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA 3. dk&fujhkd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrkkj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrkkj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA

4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijhkk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks

vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A 5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy

Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijhkk dk esa oftZr gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls djus dh

vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijhkk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zoskd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk

dks ijhkk dk ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax

ekU; ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u i= fHkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk

tk;sxkA dPps dk;Z ds fy,