ĐỀ SỐ 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:A. ploughed B. coughed C. laughed D. photographed Question 2:A.bushes B. offices C. blades D.branches Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. diverse B. require C. oblige D. caring Question 4: A. countryman B. sacrifice C. supportive D. marvelous Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5:Every fuel has their own particular temperature at which it begins to burn. A.to burn B.Every fuel C.at which D.their own Question 6:As his car had beenbroken down, she gave him a lift to work . A B C D Question 7: I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been workinglike a teacher for a A B C D long time. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: You should try to cooperate __________ that organization __________ every way. A. to – in B. with – in C. with – for D. to – for

Question 9:While in Europe on vacation, the twins roamed the countryside on their bikes. A. rounded B. rocked C. wandered D. rustled Question 10: There was a long period without rain in this area last year so the harvest was poor. A. famine B. flood C. drought D. epidemic Question 11: I have written her 3 letters but she hasn‟t answered __________them. A. any ofB.some ofC.some D.any

Question12:Nearly all of the reporters__________ the press conference had questions __________. A.attended/asked B. attending/to ask C. attending/asked D. attended/to ask

Question 13:Neither the nurses nor the doctor __________ there when the patient died. A.are B.is C.were D. was

Question 14:Can you keep calm for a moment? You_________ noise in class! A. are always making B. are always made C.always make D.have always made

Question15:Children! It‟s time you ___________ away those toys. A.tidy B.should tidy C. tidied D.to tidy

Question 16: ___________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped with the project. A.If it had been B.Hadn‟t it been C. If it hadn‟t been D.had it been

Question17:Doctor: “You __________ take more than two of these pills at once. Three might be fatal”. A. mustn‟t B.needn‟t C.don‟t D.mightn‟t

Question18:“Could you please turn off the stove? The potatoes _________ for at least 30 minutes. A.boils B.were boiling C.are boiling D. have been boiling Question19: The boy has a collection of _____________. A. old valuable Australian stamps B. valuable Australian old stamps C. valuable old Australian stamps D. old Australian valuable stamps Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Ann: “__________!” Sarah: “Thank you. I‟m glad you like it.” A. What a lovely hat you have! B.How lovely hat you are! C.How your hat is lovely! D.What lovely your hat is! Question 21: Tom: “ My first English test was not as good as I expected.”

Sam: “_______________.” A. Good Heavens! B. That‟s brilliant enough! C. Never mind, better job next time. D. It‟s okay, don‟t worry. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: You may jot down your qualifications and experience that can relate to the job.

A.turn down B. note down C.pull down D.put down

Question 23: Many large corporations will be wiped out and millions of jobs will be lost. A.replaced completely B.renewed completely C.reduced completely D. removed completely Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Why, according to pessimists, will the security of the earth be threatened? A.scientists B. optimists C.conservationists D.enthusiastists Question 25: She is carrying out a health project for the disadvantaged in inner cities and rural areas. A. urban B. mountainous C. suburban D. coastal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following questions. Question 26: “Why didn‟t your girlfriend attend the party?” he said. A. He asked me why my girlfriend didn‟t attend the party. B. He asked me why didn‟t my girlfriend attend the party. C. He asked me why my girlfriend hadn‟t attended the party. D. He asked me why had my girlfriend not attended the party. Question 27: “Are you waiting for your exam result?” she said. A. She asked me was I waiting for my exam result. B. She asked me if I was waiting for my exam result. C. She asked me whether was I waiting for my exam result. D. She asked me whether I was waiting for your exam result. Question 28: Fighting back tears, Sarah ran back to her room. A. Sarah ran back to her room because of a fight. B. Sarah tried not to cry and ran back to her room. C. When someone had a fight, Sarah ran back to her room. D. Fighting made Sarah cry and run back back to her room. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it. A. Although she didn‟t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it. B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‟t pass it. C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test. D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily. Question 30: We didn‟t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel. A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel. B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel. C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money. D. We didn‟t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

(31)______ more and more countries become industrialized, there will be more and more competition for petroleum for cars, home heating, and industry. While (32)_______petroleum contributes greatly to acid rain, it is less polluting than coal. Unfortunately, petroleum is more expensive than coal and the supply of petroleum will eventually (33)________ out. Therefore, there will be more and more pressure to burn coal for energy. Coal is a much dirtier energy source than petroleum. Since we already know (34)_______ destructive acid rain is, it is very important that we increase our efforts to find a non-polluting source of energy as quickly as possible (35)_______ we can avoid further environmental damage. Question 31: A. Although B. Even C.As D. Also Question 32:A. burning B. flowing C. blowing D. releasing Question 33: A. use B. eat C. run D. make Question 34: A. what B. that C. which D. how Question 35:A. so that B. but C. if D. because Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals and

tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by humans on foot or

on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of information between two places.

The telegram and telephone set the stage for more modem means of communication. With the invention of the

cellular phone, communication itself has become mobile.

For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in touch with family and

friends, take pictures, play games, or send text messages. The definition of a cell phone is more specific. It is a

hand-held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small special areas called

cells.

Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplexcommunication devices. They make it possible for two

people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular phones because they can

be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a half-duplex communication device

because only one person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a full-duplex device because it uses both frequencies

at the same time. A walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has more than a thousand channels. A

walkie-talkie can transmit and receive signals across a distance of about a mile. A cell phone can transmit and

receive signals over hundreds of miles. In 1973, an electronic company called Motorola hired Martin Cooper to

work on wireless communication. Motorola and Bell Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first

portable communication device. Martin Cooper won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On April

3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone call to his opponent at AT&T while walking down the streets of New

York City. People on the sidewalks gazed at Cooper in amazement. Cooper's phone was called A Motorola

Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping 2.5 pounds (as compared to today's cell phones that weigh as little as 3 or 4

ounces)

After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone available to the general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phones for commercial use. The early cell phone and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $ 3,500. In 1977, AT&T constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2,000 customers. In 1981, a second cellular phone system was started in the Washington D.C. and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for cell phones to become available for general public use. Today, there are more than sixty million cell phone customers with cell phones producing over thirty billion dollars per year.

Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage? A.The increasing number of people using cell phone. B.How Cooper competed with AT&T. C.The history of a cell phone. D.The difference between cell phones and telephones.

Question 37: What definition is true of a cell phone? A.A hand-held wireless communication device. B.A version of walkie-talkie. C.The first product of two famous corporations. D.Something we use just for playing games.

Question 38: What is wrong about a walkie-talkie? A.It has one channel. B.It was first designed in 1973. C.It can be used within a distance of a mile. D. Only one person can talk at a time.

Question 39: The word "duplex" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______ A.quick B.modern C. having two parts D.having defects

Question 40: To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call? A.A person on New York street. B.The director of his company. C. A member of Bell Laboratories. D.His assistant at Motorola.

Question 41: How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today's cell phones?

A. ten times as heavy as B.as heavy as

C.much lighter D.2 pounds heavier

Question 42: When did Motorola introduce the first cell phones for commercial use? A. in 1981 B. in 1983 C.in the same year when AT& T constructed a cell phone system D.in the early years when he first made a cell- phone call Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of the Prize. The first American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1925. However, Addams is best known as the founder of Hull House. Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women in her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her led her to work for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s Jane Addams traveled to Europe. While she was in London, she visited a 'settlement house' called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her friend, Ellen Gates

Starr, opened Hull House in a neighborhood of slums in Chicago in 1899. Hull House provided a day care center for children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a meeting place for clubs and labor unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use their education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work. Before World War I , Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper poll that asked, "Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?" Jane Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America's involvement in World War I, however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams was a strong champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote. Addams joined in the movement for women's suffrage and was a vice president of the National American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) and was president of the Women's International League for Peace and Freedom. Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died of cancer in 1929. Question 43: With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned ? A. The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman B. A woman's work for social reform and world peace C. The early development of Social Work in America D. Contributions of educated women to American society Question 44: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams. B. Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House. C. Those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills. D. Jane Addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country. Question 45: The word "commitment" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. A. involvement B. obligation C. dedication D. enthusiasm Question 46: Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because ________. A. it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop careers in social work B. she traveled to Europe in the 1880s C. she visited Toynbee Hall D. she was invited by a 'settlement house' in Chicago Question 47: The word "their" in paragraph two refers to ________. A. children of working mothers B. middle - class women C. visiting nurses D. labor union members Question 48: The word 'contemporaries' in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. A. people of the same time B. famous peple still alive C. elected officials D. people old enough to move Question 49: According to the passage, Jane Addams' reputation was damaged when she _________ . A. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions B. joined in the movement for women's sufferage C. became a founding member of the NAACP D. opposed America's involvement in World War I Question 50: In paragraph three, the word "gradually" is closest in meaning to _________ . A. in no time B. step by step C. minute by minute D. time after time

ĐỀ SỐ 2 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. included B. wanted C. decided D. noticed Question 2. A. perfume B. persuade C. return D. purse Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. effort B. survive C. enlarge D. disguise Question 4. A. reliable B. conventional C. insurance D. intellectual Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: One of the most effective method of helping children learn new vocabulary words is to A B teach unfamiliar words used in a text prior to the reading experience.

C D Question 6: Vietnamese studentsmay encounter some problems whenstudying in abroad.

A B C D Question 7: Daisy is reading her essay because she has a test tomorrow. She shouldbe studying.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions Question 8: “ Hello. My name‟s Richard” _ “__________” A. Are you Richard? B. Mine‟s John, hello C. Yes, I know D. Oh, ok thank you Question 9: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!” Sue: “__________” A. Don‟t mention it. B. How dare you? C. I‟m afraid so. D. Thank you. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 10: Organizing some extra-curricula activities has occupied a lot of my time recently.

A. taken in B. taken up C. taken over D. taken after Question 11: Everything was in a thorough mess.

A. utter B. full C. complete D. appalling Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 12: John failed to stop smoking though he had had a bad cough. A. successful B. was able C. could D. succeed Question 13: This shouldn‟t be too taxing for you.

A. comfortable B. demanding C. easy D. relaxing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions. Question 14: We bought some_________.

A. German lovely old glasses C. German old lovely glasses B. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses

Question 15: This is the third time James__________ the volunteer program to the village. A. joins B. joined C. has joined D. has been joining

Question 16: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is,________. A. the more heat it retains B. the heat it retains more

C. it retains the more heat D. more heat it retains Question 17: He was so awkward, but luckily only one of the dinner _________ broken. A. plate was B. plates have been C. plates was D. plares is Question 18: We should participate in the movements _________ the natural environment. A. organizing to conserve B. organized conserving C. which organize to conserve D. organized to conserve Question 19: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ___ what she missed when she was away.

A. cut down on B. put up with C. catch up on D. take up with Question 20: The workers'claim for a ten percent pay rise has been under ________ by the government. A. consideration B. inquiry C. regard D. application Question 21: The _________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a pose smile on her face. A. stylistic B. stylishly C. stylish D. stylistically Question 22: I haven't got a passport, _______ means I can't leave my country.

A. which B. that C. this D. it Question 23: The goverment should take ________ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.

A. step B. measures C. changes D. solutions Question 24: Only because she had to support her family _________ to leave school.

A. that Alice decides B. did Alice decide C. does Alice decide D. Alice decide Question 25: George won five medals at the competition. His parents_________ very proud of him.

A. can‟t be B. can‟t have C. must have been D. could have been Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure. Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially – exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just „goofing off‟. But here we are at the start of the 21

st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom times in

human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that technology almost never does what we expect. In „the old days‟, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their offices at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they traveled to and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today‟s highly competitive job market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours and to keep in touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a result, employees feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel pressured to work after hours just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer, change their work tasks more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job security. Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and e-mail messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty, friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent on instant messaging services would probably show staggering use. This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research to the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and stressful rather than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it should benefit us. From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher Question 26: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our lives easier__________. A. have brought us complete happiness

B. have fully met our expectations C. have not interfered with our privacy

D. have turned out to do us more harm than good Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys? A. They make our life more stressful. B. They bring more leisure to our life. C. They are used even during vacations. D. They are being increasingly used. Question 28: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”______”. A. unforgettable B. unimaginable C. predictable D. foreseeable Question 29: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that__________. A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices Question 30: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to__________. A. employers B. employees C. workers D. tasks Question 31: This passage has probably been taken from__________. A. a science review B. a political journal C. an advertisement D. a fashion magazine Question 32: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Expectations and Plain Reality B. Benefits of Technology C. Research on the Roles of Computers D. Changes at the Workplace Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (33)________ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year‟s consumption would stretch to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n)

(34)________ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal. (35)________ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, lovely - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar! Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (36)________ sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel. There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (37)________ whole grains and are sugar-free.

From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo Question 33: A. to lay B. laying C. lay D. laid Question 34: A. charge B. average C. cost D. expense Question 35: A. Most B. Mostly C. Almost D. Furthermost Question 36: A. tall B. large C. high D. many Question 37: A. by B. from C. at D. in Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow while its problems can be solved. On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others. On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is, industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive. Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country. Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental regulations. One of the key problems of the 21

st century will be determining to what extent markets should be

regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale. From “Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD]

Question 38: It is stated in the passage that_________. A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries C. suppoters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia Question 39: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that__________. A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products B. there will be less competition among producers C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries Question 40: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “___________”. A. removed B. solved C. offered D. distributed Question 41: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “_________”. A. makes sellers responsive to any changes

B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet C. forces sellers to go bare-footed

D. prevents sellers from selling new products

Question 42: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of__________. A. their neo-liberal policies B. their help to developing countries C. their prevention of bubbles D. their protectionism and subsidies Question 43: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are__________. A. successful economies B. young companies

C. development strategies D. young industries Question 44: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed. B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization. C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies. D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety. Question 45: The debate over globalization is about how__________. A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries B. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization C. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community D. to terminate globalization in its entirely Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 46: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too.

A. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese. B. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at. C. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese. D. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese.

Question 47: It’s a bad line. Do you want me to give you a ring later? A. Can I call you later? B. I would like to give you a ring as a present. C. Would you like to become my wife? D. Can I give the ring back to you later?

Question 48: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test. A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test. B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn‟t finish the test. C. Although she didn‟t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later.

A. If they arrive late, we‟d better leave them a note. B. We‟d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later. C. They‟ll probably arrive later so that we‟d better leave them a note. D. We‟d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.

Question 50: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past. A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries. B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past. C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past. D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.

_______THE END________

ĐỀ SỐ 3 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:A. missed B.laughed C. stopped D. closed Question 2:A.tooth B. boot C. smooth D. look Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3:A. disappear B.arrangement C. apponent D.contractual Question 4:A. invention B. delicateC.domestic D.bacteria Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: With the victory over Germany in the final match, Brazil became the first team wonthe trophy A B C five times. D Question 6: : Globally and internationally, the 1990's stood out as the warmest decade in the history of A B C weather records. D Question 7:All of his friends were surprisingat his success A BC D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8:Whistling or clapping hands to get someone„s attention is considered ______ and even rude in some circumstances. A. suitable B. unnecessary C. appropriate D. impolite Question 9: No _______ water polo player except _______ goalie can hold the ball with both hands. A. a / the B. the / Ø C. the / a D. Ø / the

Question 10: The more expensive the car is, the ___________________it is. A. Less buyers B. more comfortable C. more quickly D. less economical

Question 11: John was the youngest boy ___. A. that was joined the club B. to be admitted to the club C. admitted to the club D. joining the club Question 12: The X-ray____________ in 1895. A. is said to have been discovered B. is said to be discovered C. said to have been discovered D. said to discover Question 13: It is of great importance to create a good impression _______ your interviewer. A. on B. about C. for D. at

Question 14: Swimming produces both_______________and physical benefits. A. psychology B. psychological C. psychologically D. psychologist

Question 15: There should be an international law against _____. A. reforestation B. afforestation C. forestry D. deforestation

Question 16: Conservationists ______that experiments on animals be stopped. A. recommended B. banned C. said D. complained Question 17: It‟s nice I am now in London again. This is the second time I ______ there. A. have been B. will be C.would be D. was Question 18:At the end of this month, scientists at the institute will conduct their AIDS research, the results of __________will be published within 6 months. A. which B. whom C. that D. it Question 19: I can‟t ______________up with your bad behavior any more. A. put B. stand in for C. sit out D. stand up Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20:– Max: “How lovely your pets are!” - Min: “ _________” A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say so B. Really? They are

C. can you say that again D. I love them, too Question 21:- “Oh, I‟m really sorry!”. - “____________________”. A.It was a pleasure. B. That„s all right. C.Thanks D.Yes, why? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Many plant and animal species will be in danger if we don't take any actions to protect them. A. on purpose B. at ease C. at stake D. in advance Question 23:People of diverse backgrounds now go to different places for pleasure, business or education A. distinctive B. different C. isolated D. distant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24:1. We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being. A. lively B. frequented C. accessible D. revealed Question 25:3. There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble. A. adequate B. unsatisfactory C. abundant D. dominant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26:When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.

A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. B. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. D. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

Question 27:But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family business. A. Richard‟s father didn‟t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement. B. Richard didn‟t take over the family business because his father didn‟t retire. C. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early. D. His father retire early, but he still ran the family business.

Question 28:No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back. A. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately. B. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone. C. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back. D. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.

A. If he takes his father‟s advice, he will not be out of work. B. If he had taken his father‟s advice, he would not be out of work. C. If he had taken his father‟s advice, he would not have been out of work. D. If he took his father‟s advice, he would not be out of work.

Question 30: John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam. A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam. B. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam C. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam. D. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

THE HISTORY OF WRITING The development of writing (31) ___ a huge difference to the world and might see it as the beginning of the media. Pieces of pottery with marks on that are probably numbers have been discovered in China that date from around 4000 BC. Hieroglyphics and other forms of "picture writing" developed in the (32)_____ around Mesopotamia (modern-day Iraq), where the ancient Sumerian civilization was based, from around 3300 BC onwards. However, the first true alphabet was used by the Phoenicians around 1050 BC. Their alphabet had 22 letters and it is estimated that it lasted for 1000 years. The first two signs were called "aleph" and "beth", which in Greek became "alpha" and "beta", which gave us the modern word "alphabet" The modern European alphabet is based on the Greek and (33) ____ to other European countries under the Romans. A number of changes took place as time passed. The Romans added the letter G, and the letter J and V were (34) ____ to people in Shakespeare's time. If we (35) ____the history of punctuation, we also find some interesting facts. Question 31. A. did B. had C. made D. took Question 32. A. distance B. area C. length D. earth Question 33. A. spread B. appeared C. was D. occurred Question 34. A. infamous B. unpopular C. unknown D. hidden Question 35. A. look into B. bring on C. make off D. hold up Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart was born in 1756 in Austria. He would become one of the most talented composers to ever live. He started to write and play music before he was even eight years old. As a three-year-old, Mozart already loved music. He would listen to his father teach his older sister. She was learning to play the piano. Mozart looked up to his sister, and copied her playing.

Mozart‟s father noticed Mozart‟s talent in music. He began to teach his son. Mozart was a fast learner. Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs. Before long, Mozart wrote hís own musical composition at the age of five. He knew how to read and write music before he could read or write words! His first piece was very short. Soon, Mozart‟s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe. Mozart played music in the cities. He played for nobles and royalty. Many times he played music with his sister. During the tour, Mozart met some musicians and learned from them. One of the musicians was Johann Christian Bach, the youngest son of Johann Sebastian Bach. When he was eight years old, Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra. Before long, he finished writing his first symphony. Mozart died on December 5, 1791. He was only 35 years old, but he composed more than 600 musical pieces. More than 200 years later, Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever. 36. When did Mozart start to write and play music? A. before he was five years old B. before he was eight years old C. when he was 10 years old D. when he was 35 years old 37. The passage descibes the early years of Mozart‟s life. Which of the following events happened first? A. Mozart wrote his first own musical compositionB. Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra C. Mozart toured all the major musical centers in Western EuropeD. Mozart listened to his father teach his sister how to play music 38. Mozart was a very gifted child. What evidence from the passage supports this conclusion? A. Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs B. While touring different cities throughout Europe Mozart played for nobles and royalty. C. Mozart was only 35 years old when he died D. Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever 39. Who taught Mozart how to play music? A. Johann Christian Bach B. Johann Sebastian Bach C. his father D. his sister 40.The word “composed” in the passage is the closest in meaning to_________. A. played B. taught C. purchased D. wrote 41. Where would the passage most likely be found? A. in a novel about MozartB. in a book of poetry about classical musicians C. in a book of biographies of classical musiciansD. in a newspaper article from 1791 42. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Mozart composed more than 600 musical pieces during his life. B. Mozart was a very talented child and grew up to become one of the greatest composers C. Mozart‟s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe D. Mozart‟s father taught both Mozart and his sister how to play music. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Some companies seem to have a knack for revolutionizing any market that they enter. They produceinnovative new products that sell in huge numbers, change people‟s expectations, and become world famous. In the movie world, for example, you may know Pixar and Dreamworks. Online, you are probably familiar with Google and Facebook. In the computer world, there is one name that instantly comes to mind. That company is Apple. The beginning of Apple is a legendary story. In 1976, twenty-one year old Steve Jobs started the company from his family home in California. He worked with computer scientist Steve Wozniak, and businessman Ronald Wayne, to develop, build, and market a personal computer, their first product. These first computers were not very slick or professional, but they were definitely innovative. The Apple I was the first low-cost computer system to have built-in video capabilities, This means it was able to display its output on a TV screen. Following the success of Apple I, Apple launched a second computer in 1977. This model came with its own monitor and keyboard and was called the Apple II. This new model‟s main selling point was that it could display information in color, another first for low-cost computer system. The popularity of the Apple II increased when it was chosen as the platform for the first spreadsheet program, called VisiCalc. This made the Apply II popular with business users as well.

Apple‟s next innovative success came in January 1984 when it released the Apple Macintosh. It was the first commercially successful computer to feature a mouse and a graphical user interface (GUI). Before the Macintosh, computer users operated their computer by typing instructions on a keyboard. Now they could operate their computer by pointing and clicking on the GUI with a mouse. The Macintosh inspired many similar operating system, including Microsoft Windows. Visionary founder, Steve Jobs, left Apple in 1985 and the company‟s reputation for innovation seemed to leave with him. However, when Jobs returned to his old job in 1996, he quickly revitalized the company. Most people are familiar with Apple‟s success since Job‟s return. Starting in 1998 and continuing to the present day, Apple has released several new and very popular products, including the iMac (1998), the iPod (2001), the iPhone (2007), and finally the iPad (2010). All these products combined stylish good looks with a powerful, simple to use, operating system- a combination that is very popular with consumers. These days, Apple‟s reputation for innovation is second to none. 43. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that____________________ A. some people have heard of Pixar and DreamWorksB. Pixar and DreamWorks are two movie-making companies C. Pixar and DreamWorks are similar companies to AppleD. many people have heard of Pixar and DreamWorks 44. Why does the writer mention Pixar and DreamWorks, Google, and Facebook in paragraph 1? A. They are very popular with kids and teenagers.B. They are examples of innovation and success. C. They are related to computer systemsD. Apple developed the four companies. 45. According to the passage, which of the following words best describes Apple‟s first computer ? A. slick B. professional C. innovative D. legendary 46. What did Apple launch in 1977 ? A. Apple I B. a new TV screen C. Apple II D. Apple Macintosh 47. What was special about Apple‟s Macintosh ? A. It was the first computer to have built-in videoB. It was the first computer with a monitor and keyboard C.It could display its output on a TV screenD. It had a mouse and a graphical user interface. 48. Which sentence about Apple is true ? A. Steve Wozniak is now in charge of the companyB. It created the first spreadsheet program called VisiCalc C. It released the iPad before the iMacD. Apple was first started in Steve Job‟s home. 49. Which sentence about Apple is NOT true ? A. The Apple Macintosh „s GUI inspired Microsoft WindowsB. Steve Jobs left the company but later returned C. It has reputation for innovationD. It created Google and Facebook 50. What can be the best title for the passage ? A. The Sweetest Apple B. Apple- The Most Innovative C. Computers in Shape of Apple D. Apple to Change the World

________THE END_________

ĐỀ SỐ 4 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. shifts B. thinks C. soups D. joins 2. A. proved B. surveyed C. discussed D. rained Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. confine B. maintain C. oblige D. certain 4. A. diversity B. traditional C. attractiveness D. generation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 5. (A) While I (B) drove home, I (C) turned on the radio and (D) heard the news about the accident. 6. No one (A) came to see (B) us since we (C) bought these (D) bloodhounds. 7. At 9:00 p.m. last Friday, my boss (A) called me and (B) told me I (C) have to go into the office (D) the next day. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 8. My mother takes the responsibility for running the household. A. moving quickly C. making the house run C. going D. managing 9. If you are walking across the school yard and see your teacher approaching you, a small friendly wave is appropriate. A. greeting B. waving at C. coming near D. following Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following. 10. For a big party like this, you should wear formal clothes like a suit and tie, not jeans and pullover. A. casual smart B. casual C. long D. warm 11. Don‟t be so nervous! Try to answer the questions clearly. A. worried B. quiet C. calm D. stressful Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 12 – “Can you give my regards to your family?”_” ……………………………..” A. My parents will be happy B. By all means C. Thank you, I will D. Not at all 13. Hung: ……………………………………………………….. Hoa : Thanks. I‟m glad you like it. My sister gave it to me yesterday. A. What a fashionable dress you are wearing! B. Oh, I like your fashionable dress.

C. I think you have a fashionable dress. D. Your fashionable dress must be expensive. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 14. I am a _______ student this year. A. twelve-grade B. twelve‟s-grade C. twelfth-grade D. twelfths-grade 15. My younger brother is rather _______, but he is always obedient and hard-working. A. mischievous B. caring C. helpful D. generous 16. The change of the plan is strange, but I don‟t think it‟s _______. A. significance B. significant C. significantly D. signifies 17. It‟s not easy to change people‟s _______ toward a certain problem. A. attitude B. idea C. opinion D. thinking 18. Non-verbal _______ such as waving, nodding or shaking of the head also have cultural meanings. A. signs B. hints C. marks D. signals 19. Then, he _______ something that his boss _______ some time before. A. remembered/ had said B. had remembered/said C. remembered/ was saying D. was remembering/ said 20. In my family, all of us must share household _______. A. appliances B. duties C. chorus D. chores 21. When the teacher wants to get your attention, he/she can _______ at you. A. show B. wave C. point D. nod 22. We always believe that love always _______ marriage because if we have love, we will have a happy marriage. A. goes after B. goes by C. follows D. precedes 23. Lan: When does the luncheon take place? Hoa: It ………………… in the dining room right now. A. serves B. served C. is serving D. is being served 24. In ………….. or elementary grades, students may spend all the day with one teacher. A. main B. chief C. primary D. secondary

25. ………………… school helps children develop their intellectual and physical skills and learn to get along with others. A. Nurse B. Nurses C. Nursing D. Nursery 26. If you …………..to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now. A. listen B. listened C. will listen D. had listened Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 27. I have never played golf before. A. This is the first time I have ever played golf. B. I used to played golf but I gave it up already. C. It‟s the last time I played golf. D. It‟s the first time I had played golf. 28. “ What made you change your mind?” Joe asked. A. Joe asked what made me change my mind B. Joe wanted to know what had changed my mind. C. Joe asked what had made me change my mind. D. Joe asked what changed my mind. 29. We have planned to leave for Hanoi tomorrow. A. We will leave for Hanoi tomorrow. B. We are leaving for Hanoi tomorrow. C. We will be going for Hanoi tomorrow. D. We will have left for Hanoi tomorrow. 30. The last time he went swimming was three years ago. A. I swam a lot when we were three years ago. B. I hadn‟t been swimming before three years ago. C. I went swimming for three years. D. I haven‟t been swimming for three years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Studying abroad and studying in your own country both have definite (31)_____ for a student. Living in another country can be an exciting experience (32)_____ everything seems new and different. The challenge of living in a new environment can give you courage and self confidence, (33)______ . if you want to learn (34)_____ language, living abroad is a great way to do that because you can read magazines or newspapers, watch television programs, or make friends with people who are (35)______ … 31. A. disadvantages B. drawbacks C. benefits D. profits 32. A. because B. that C. but D. so 33. A. either B. however C. even D. too 34. A. other B. others C. another D. one another 35. A. mother tongue B. native speakers C. foreigners D. English-speaking Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Our eyes and ears might be called transformers because they sense the light and sound around us and turn them into electrical impulses that the brain can interpret. These electrical impulses that have been transformed by the eye and ears reach the brain and are turned into messages that we can interpret. For the eye, the process begins as the eye admits light waves, bends them at the cornea and lens, and then focuses them on the retina. At the back of each eye, nerve fibers bundle together to form optic nerves, which join and then split into two optic tracts. Some of the fibers cross, so that part of the input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, and vice versa. The process in the ear is carried out through sensory cells that are carried in fluid-filled canals and that are extremely sensitive to vibration. Sound that is transformed into electricity travels along nerve fibers in the auditory nerve. These fibers form a synapse with neurons that carry the messages to the auditory cortex on each side of the brain. 36. According to the author, we might call our eyes and ears “transformers” because: A. They sense light and sound. B. They create electrical impulses C. The brain can interpret the input. D. The messages travel in the brain. 37. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “admits”? A. selects B. interprets C. lets in D. focuses on 38. The word “bundle” could be best replaced by which of the following: A. group B. grow C. branch D. settle 39. The word “split” could be best replaced by which of the following: A. tear B. fracture C. separate D. crack 40. According to the passage, when input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, what happens? A. The nerve fibers bundle together. B. The optic nerves split. C. The retina receives light waves. D. Input from the left field goes to the right side. 41. The phrase “carried out” could be best replaced by which of the following: A. brought over B. taken away C. accomplished D. maintained 42. According to the passage, optic nerves eventually: A. split B. bend C. admit light wave D. become messages Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

The most common causes of tsunamis are underwater earthquakes. To understand underwater earthquakes, you must first understand plate tectonics. The theory of plate tectonics suggests that the lithosphere, or top layer of the Earth, is made up of a series of huge plates. These plates make up the continents and seafloor. They rest on an underlying viscous layer called the asthenosphere. Think of pie cut into eight slices. The pie crust would be the lithosphere and the hot, sticky pie filling underneath would be the asthenosphere. On the earth, these plates are constantly in motion, moving along each other at a speed of 1 to 2 inches (2.5-5 cm) per year. The movement occurs most dramatically along fault lines (where the pie is cut). These motions are capable of producing earthquakes and volcanism, which, when they occur at the bottom of the ocean, are two possible sources of tsunamis. When two plates come into contact at a region known as a plate boundary, a heavier plate can slip under a lighter one. This is called subduction. Underwater subduction often leaves enormous “handprints” in the form of deep ocean trenches along the seafloor. In some cases of subduction, part of the seafloor connected to the lighter plate may “snap up” suddenly due to pressure from the sinking plate. This results in an earthquake. The focus of the earthquake is the point within the Earth where the rupture first occurs, rock break and the first seismic waves are generated. The epicenter is the point on the seafloor directly above the focus. When this piece of the plate snaps up and sends tons of rock shooting upward with tremendous force, the energy of that force is transferred to the water. The energy pushes the water upward above normal sea level. This is birth of a tsunami. The earthquake that generated the December 26, 2004 tsunami in the Indian Ocean was a 9.0 on the Richter scale- one of the biggest in recorded history. 43. Which of the following best states the topic of this text? A. The birth of a tsunami B. The magnitude of tsunamis C. Tsunamis in the Indian Ocean D. Series of huge plate on earth 44. According to the first paragraph, continents and seafloor are part of _____________. A. lithosphere B. asthenosphere C. plate tectonics D. huge plates 45. The word “which” in the passage refers to _____________. A. these motions B. earthquakes and volcanism C. fault lines D. tsunamis 46. It can be inferred from the passage that the earthquake will never occur when _____________ A. the subduction is evidenced. B. seismic waves are generated. C. no fault line of plate tectonics happens. D. heavier plates and lighter ones break up. 47. The place within the Earth where the first rupture occurs is called _____________. A. the epicenter B. the vocal C. the focus D. the center 48. The word “tremendous” in the passage is CLOSEST in meaning to _____________. A. remarkable B. huge C. challenging D. explosive 49. Which of the following natural disasters happening in Indonesia (in the Indian Ocean) is related to the fault movement of plate tectonics? A. Volcanic eruptions B. Soil erosion C. Forest fires D. Floods 50. The following is mentioned in the text about tsunamis, EXCEPT that they are _____________ A. predictable following any incidence of earthquakes. B. close to the rise of sea levels from the sinking plate. C. connected to deep ocean trenches along sea floors. D. related to strong movements of plate tectonics.

___________________________-- THE END--________________________________

ĐỀ SỐ 5 I. Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. 1: A. eventually B. capacity C. altogether D. particular 2: A. appearance B. ambitious C. performance D. telephone II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest. 3.A. boots B. books C.stops D.learns 4. A. student B. supportive C. curriculum D. tutor III. Choose the underlined word/ phrase that needs correcting 5. Foreign students who are doing (A) a decision about which (B) school to attend (C) may not know exactly where the choices (D) are located. 6. Could (A) you mind telling me ( B ) the way to ( C) the nearest (D) post office? 7. The children were playing(A) last night outdoors (B) when it began (C) to rain very hard (D). IV. Choose the word which best fits each gap of the sentence 8. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several_______ . A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates 9. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso. A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy 10. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very_______. A. open – minded B. kind – hearted C. narrow- minded D. absent – minded 11. Communities in remote areas are extremely________ to famine if crops fail. A. defenseless B. helpless C. disappointed D. vulnerable 12. I could hear voices but I couldn‟t ________what they were saying. A. turn up B. bring about C. make out D. try out 13. John is intelligent but he ............common sense. A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants 14. His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man ............. A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know 15. Instead of ............about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent. A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited 16. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ............. A. another B. other C. the another D. the other 17. Tony never comes to class on time and ........... A. neither does Pedro B. so does Pedro C. so doesn‟t Pedro D. neither doesn‟t Pedro 18. David painted the room black. It looks dark and dreary. He ............chosen a different color. A. had to B. should have C. must have D. could have been 19. In most_______ developed countries, up to 50% of_______ population enters higher education at some time in their lives.

A. the/ B. / C. the/ a D. /the V. Choose the word / phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined one in this sentence. 20. Catherine rejected many suitable men before settling on Tom. A. said no to B. accepted C. met D. saw 21. Those companies were closed due to some seriously financial problems. A. taken off B. put away C. wiped out D. gone over V. Choose the word / phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined one in this sentence. 22. Adding a garage will enhance the value of the house. A. stabilize B. alter C. diminish D. increase 23. It‟s extremely rude not to say “Thank you” when you are given something. A. polite B. casual C. careless D. embarrassing VI. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D which has the same meaning with the original sentence. 24. Be he rich or poor, she will many him. A. She doesn‟t want to marry him because he is poor. C. She wants to marry him if he is rich. B. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor. D. She will marry him however poor he may be. 25. When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words. A. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say. B. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say. C. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything. D. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say. 26. It‟s a pity that you didn‟t tell us about this. A. I wish you had told us about this C. I wish you have told us about this. B. I wish you told us about this D. I wish you would tell us about this. 27. My brother and I went to that school. A. I went to that school and my brother, too. C. I went to that school and so my brother did. B. I went to that school and so did my brother. D. I went to that school and so my brother did, too. 28. Wealthy as they were, they were far from happy. A. They were as wealthy as they were happy. B. They were not happy as they were wealthy. C. Even if they were wealthy, they were not unhappy. D. Although they were wealthy, they were not happy. VII. Choose the correct response to this situation.

29. Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary. “_______”. A. Great B. Oh, that's annoying C. Well, never mind D. Sounds like fun 30. “ You have a good voice! You sang so beautifully!” - “..................................................” A. Your compliment isn‟t corrects B. Your compliment is encouraging. C. Don‟t joke me D. Better than you are thinking VIII. Read the passages and choose the word/ phrase that best fits each of the blanks. Many people travel to New Zealand to learn about the Maori culture. The Maori were the (31)…………inhabitants of New Zealand, arriving on the island around 1,000 to 1,500 years ago. Probably the best known aspects of Maori culture is the haka, the Maori war dance. The main reason (32)…………..this is that the New Zealand rugby team still dances this haka before all of their games. This, in addition (33)………..the fact that their rugby team is very good, has (34)………. New Zealand‟s rugby team one of the most famous teams in rugby. The intention of the haka is to intimidate the enemy. The dance seeks to intimidate people through stomping, loud shouts, and frightening facial (35)………… Perhaps the most intimidating part of the haka is that it is done in perfect unison by all members. 31. A. origin B. original C. originate D. originally 32. A. for B. of C. by D. about 33. A. with B. to C. of D. at 34. A. got B. taken C. made D. done 35. A. express B. expressive C. expressively D. expressions IX. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 36- 42. The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the District of Columbia held a meeting in 1792 and decided to hold a contest for the best design for the Presidential House. James Hoban, an architect born in 1reland, was the winner. His bid for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the final cost of the building came to twice that amount. The work on the project began during the same year, and the grounds of approximately one and a half miles west of the Capitol Hill were chosen by Major Pierre-Charles L. Enfant, who was in charge of city planning. However, the construction continued for several more years, and George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail moved in 1800, only six rooms had been completed. The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the color of the paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and James Hoban reconstructed the house for President James Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north portico was added to the building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the building was so dilapidated that it was beyond repair and suggested that it was cheaper to construct a new one than repair the existing dwelling. However, the national sentiment was to keep the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5.4 million dollars for repairs. In 1961, Jacqueline Kennedy launched a program to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine Arts Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors. The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters contain 107 rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor's suite, a dentist's office, a large solarium, a broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which the president works is not located in the White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The White House stands on 16 acres of park-land and overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood groves. 36. The word “contest” is closest in meaning to A. hearing B. tournament C. competition D. computation 37.What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction? A. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners. B. It did not adhere to the original estimate. C. It was not included in the architectural design. D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home. 38.The word "grounds" is closest in meaning to A. high ground B. several lots C. hills D. site 39.It can be inferred from the passage that A. George Washington often used the White House steps B. George Washington contributed to the White House design C. George Washington never lived in the White House D. The White House was excluded from the city planning 40. The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House building continued A. up to 1800 B. after 1800 C. until 1814 D. until 1792 41.The word "dilapidated" is closest in meaning to A. ornate B. run-down C. old-fashioned D. obscure 42. What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second paragraph? A. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century. B. The building was modernized extensively during one decade. C. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century. D. Each president added new features to the building's conveniences. X. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 43- 50.

Today‟s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have already been developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently available. Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighbourhood cars, electronic delivery vans, bikes and trolleys. As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as common as today‟s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centres might be reserved for electric cars. Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighbourhood vehicles all meeting at transit centres that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by freeway today. 43. The author‟s purpose in the passage is to........... A. criticize conventional vehicles B. support the invention of electric cars C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future 44. The passage would most likely be followed by details about........... A. the neighbourhood of the fixture C. electric shuttle buses B. automated freeways D. pollution restrictions in the future 45. The word „compact‟ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to........... A. squared B. long-range C. inexpensive D. concentrated 46. In the second paragraph, the author implies that.......... A. everyday life will stay much the same in the future. B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed. D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future 47. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be ........... A. much larger than they are today C.common as today‟s gas stations B. more convenient than they are today D. equipped with charging devices 48. The word „charging‟ in this passage refers to........... A. aggression B. lightning C. electricity D. credit cards 49. The word „commuters‟ in paragraph 4 refers to............ A. visitors B. cab drivers C. shoppers D. daily travelers 50. The word „hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to............ A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D. combination

ĐỀ SỐ 6 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. broad B. load C. road D. boat 2. A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. accuracy B. Canada C. banana D. countryside 4. A. contaminate B. continent C. conquer D. comfortable Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 5.Never having flied(A) before, Mark wasvery (B) excited as (C) he drove to the (D)airport. 6. If classes had finished (A) sooner(B), I would go(C) to Canada last month(D). 7. The (A) law of that countryforbids anyone (B)under (C)eighteen driving(D)a car. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 8.Although he was completely ________, he produced the most beautiful table. A. unable B. incapable C. uneducated D. untrained 9. It is doubtful whether newspapers……………. governments to any great degree. A. draw B. influence C. catch D. attract 10. Many companies……………. to take part in illegal logging. A. denied B. rejected C. protested D. refused 11. The music……………..the composer‟s joy of life A. arouses B. appeals C. expresses D. attracts 12. By the 1300s, the Spanish had learnt that gunpowder could____ propel an object with incredible force. A. using it to B. used to C. be used to D. been used to 13. Rodney____ for the company for very long before he was promoted. A. hadn’t been working B. hasn‟t been working C. didn‟t used to work D. didn‟t work. 14. “Do you think Harry will want something to eat after he gets here?” “I hope not. It‟ll probably be after midnight, and we____.” A. be sleeping B. are sleeping C. will be sleeping D. have been sleeping 15. Mr. Lee was upset by____ him the truth. A. us not tell B. we didn‟t tell C. not to tell D. our not having told. 16. ____ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped win the project. A. Had it been B. Hadn‟t it been C. If it hadn’t been D. If it had been 17. I didn‟t see anyone but I felt as though I____. A. am watched B. have been watched C. was being watched D. be watched 18. Let‟s leave early, so we‟ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can‟t risk____ in heavy traffic during rush hour. A. to hold up B. holding up C. having held up D. being held up 19. He _____ a big fortune when he was young, so he didn‟t have to work hard. A. came into B. came up C. came across D. came round Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 20. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______” A.Sorry,the seat is taken B. Yes, I am so glad C. No, thanks. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here. 21. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I‟ll write to you when I arrive there." A. Good luck B. Have a go C. Have a good trip D. Good bye Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 22.I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news. A. be related B. be interested in C. get in touch D. have connection 23. I couldn‟t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there. A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 24:She could not hide her dismay at the result. A. disappointment B. depression C. happiness D. pessimism 25:Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional. A. voluntary B. free C. pressure D. mandatory Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 26. They arrived too late to get good seats. A. When they arrived, the good seats were already taken. B. They got good seats some time after they arrive. C. Although they were late, they found some good seats. D. They had to stand for the whole show. 27. He started to play the guitar five years ago. A. He has been playing the guitar since five years. B. he has been playing the guitar for five years. C. He has been starting to play the guitar for five years.

D. He has started playing the guitar for 5 years. 28. The switch was too high for him to reach. A. He wasn‟t tall enough for reaching the switch. B. He wasn’t tall enough to reach the switch. C. He wasn‟t enough tall to reach the switch. D. He wasn‟t so tall that he can reach the switch. 29. It‟s possible to cross the road because of the traffic. A. The traffic makes people be impossible to cross the road. B. The traffic makes everyone be impossible to cross the road. C. The traffic makes it be impossible to cross the road. D. The traffic makes it impossible to cross the road. 30. I would prefer you not to smoke in here. A. I‟d rather you shouldn‟t some in here. B. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in here. C. I‟d rather you not to smoke in here. D. I‟d rather you don‟t smoke in here. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Health is something we tend to (31) …………..when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly (32)…………..of it. But illness can come, even when we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (33) …………… to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago, however, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (34) …………..of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became much safer for children. Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (35) ……………. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today. 31. A. forget B. ignore C. give up D. throw away 32. A. awake B. keen C. aware D. concerned 33. A. how B. what C. which D. when 34. A. reason B. origin C. source D. cause 35. A. speed up B. advance C. accelerate D. run

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees‟ homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn‟t telecommuting become more popular? Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager‟s responsibilities. It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office. 36. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? A. The advantages of telecommuting. B. A definition of telecommuting. C. An overview of telecommuting. D. The failure of telecommuting. 37. The phrase “of no consequence” means____. A. of no use B. of no good C. unimportant D. irrelevant 38. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT____. A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision. C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home. 39. The word “executives“ in line 10 refers to____. A. telecommuters B. managers C. employees D. most people 40. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees____. A. need regular interaction with their families. B.are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office. C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office. D. are ignorant of telecommuting. 41. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is____. A. a telecommuter B. the manager C. a statistician D. a reporter 42. When Business Week published “ The Portable Executive “, it implied that A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective. B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting. C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic. D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider. Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank themin order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields in concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission. Don‟t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one. 43. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____. A. emphasize that each person‟s answers will be different. B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process. C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D.indicate that each person’s answers may change over time. 44. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____. A. questions B. answers C. features D.jobs 45. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____. A. discovering B.considering C. measuring D. disposing 46. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city? A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising 47. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that____. A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B.insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career. C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion. D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career. 48. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that____. A.you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling. C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future. 49. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4? A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber. B.To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception. C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen. D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant. 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true? A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary. B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs. C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant D.Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate

ÐỀ SỐ 7 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. allowed B. passed C. argued D. raised

Question 2: A. machine B. watching C. kitchen D. matches Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. confidence B. suitable C. responsible

D.

secondary

Question 4: A. verbal B. polite C. common D. social Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: A large number of Indian men agrees that it is unwise to confide in their wives.

A B C D Question 6: Chemistry has become one of the most important factor in the textile industry.

A B C D Question 7: Unless you don‟t study hard, you won‟t pass the GCSE examination.

A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: In the last hundred years, traveling _______ much easier and more comfortable.

A. becomes B. has become C. became D. will become Question 9: Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but _____ primary cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.

A. a / the B. Ø / a C. the / a D. Ø / Ø

Question 10: This factory produced______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.

A. as twice as many B. twice as many as C. twice as many D. as twice many

Question 11: Jason asked me _______ me the book the day before.

A. if who gave B. if who has given

C. that who had given D. who had given

Question 12: The prisoner is thought _____ by climbing over the wall.

A. to escape B. to escape C. had escaped D. to have escaped

Question 13: Many modern medicines are derived _______ plants and animals.

A. on B. from C. for D. in

Question 14: The success of the 22nd SEA Games had a great contribution of many

_______ volunteers.

A. support B. supporter C. supportive D. supportively Question 15: Someone who is _______ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular.

A. powerful B. optimistic C. stagnant D. pessimistic Question 16: According to a recent survey, most people are on good ________ with their neighbors.

A. relations B. acquaintance C. relationships D. terms Question 17: Most of the computers in the laboratory are ________ now.

A. out of order B. out of work C. out of working D. out of function

Question 18: Leila ________ the information she wanted in her reference books.

A. took up B. looked after C. took out D. looked up

Question 19: I decided that I couldn‟t put ____ their thoughtless behavior any longer.

A. up with B. up C. off D. through to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: - “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - “________________.”

A. You are telling a lie B. I don‟t like your sayings

C. Thank you for your compliment D. Thank you very much. I am afraid Question 21: “Oh, I‟m really sorry!” - “______________”

A. Thanks B. It was a pleasure C. That‟s all right D. Yes, why? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. depended B. required C. divided D. paid Question 23: That matter is so confidential that it must not be discussed outside the office. A. secret B. important C. interesting D. alarming Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.

A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant.

Question 25: I didn't think his comments were very appropriate at the time.

A. exact B. right C. correct D. unsuitable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.

A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.

Question 27: "It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom." said our manager.

A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike. B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom. C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike. D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.

Question 28: Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.

A. Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke on the phone last night.

B. Mr. Smith, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night.

C. Mr. Smith, who I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.

D. Mr. Smith, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.

A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot.

B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot.

C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot.

D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.

Question 30: You‟d better take the keys. It‟s possible I‟ll come home late.

A. You‟d better take the keys as I possibly come home late.

B. I‟ll probably come home late so that you‟d better take the keys.

C. If I come home late, you‟d better take the keys.

D. You‟d better take the keys in case I come home late Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or

phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

In Italy, people and personal relationships are more important than time and schedules, which are flexible. People may be late for an appointment, although they are more (31) ____ in the north of the country than in the south. To north Europeans their way of working may seem disorganized and (32) ____. In meetings they don't feel they have to follow the agenda or speak only in turn. They interrupt (33) ____ a lot and often talk at the same time. They are excellent communicators and are very expressive in their use of body language. Appearance and good manners are important, so you should dress well and (34)____ polite, but you don't have to be formal. Food is a very important part of life, and is very good, so remember to compliment them (35)____ their cuisine.

Question 31: A. on time B. punctually C. punctual D. in time

Question 32: A. inefficient B. efficiency C. efficiently D. inefficiently

Question 33: A. another one B. each other C. yourselves D. themselves

Question 34: A. do B. speak C. be D. talk

Question 35: A. on B. at C. for D. with Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

A massage is relaxing, and makes you feel great, but did you know that it's also good for you? That's what doctors are now saying. Massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and speeds up recovery from medical problems.

Research has shown that people of all ages benefit from touch. Premature infants who are held develop faster than those left alone, and healthy babies who get a lot of physical contact cry less and sleep better. Researchers are not sure why this occurs but they have also found out that touch can slow heart rate, lower blood pressure and increase levels of serotonin, the brain chemical that is linked to well-being. It also decreases levels of the stress hormone cortisol, and this in turn increases your resistance to illness.

Massage also speeds up healing. Bone-marrow transplant patients who were given massages had better neurological function than those who weren't. Furthermore, massage reduced pain by 37% in patients with chronic muscle aches.

Giving someone a massage may be as good as getting one. A study conducted by the University of Miami found that mothers suffering from depression felt better after massaging their infants. In that same study, elderly volunteers who massaged infants reported feeling less anxious and depressed.

It even works when you do it yourself; 43% of headache sufferers reported getting relief after massaging their temples and neck and smokers who were taught self-massage while trying to quit felt less anxiety and smoked less. Question 36: What has recently been said about getting a massage?

A. It relaxes you. B. It makes you feel good. C. It improves your physical condition. D. It requires a special technique.

Question 37: Babies born before their time ..... A. cry less and sleep better if they are massaged. B. grow faster if they are held. C. develop faster than healthy babies if they get a lot of physical contact. D. don't survive if they are not held.

Question 38: The author suggests that touch .... A. increases levels of the stress hormone cortisol. B. makes your heart beat faster. C. increases the feeling of well-being. D. helps you deal with your feelings.

Question 39: Patients who get massages .... A. don't experience muscle pain. B. avoid having surgery. C. make a quicker recovery. D. are not better off than those who do not.

Question 40: According to the article.... A. massage has no effect on smokers. B. massage relieves headaches by 43%. C. smokers who gave others massages felt less anxious and smoked less. D. massaging yourself is as effective as being massaged.

Question 41: What did the study conducted in Miami show? A. Elderly volunteers who got massages felt less anxious. B. Mothers were depressed after massaging their babies. C. Babies who got massages felt better. D. Giving a massage is as beneficial as getting one.

Question 42: What is NOT true according to the article? A. Mothers will suffer from depression if they don't massage their babies. B. People can learn to massage themselves. C. Massage is good for you regardless of whether you're giving or getting one. D. It helps smokers quit smoking.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

If we took a look at how people in Europe communicated just one hundred years ago, we would be very surprised to find out that English was hardly used outside the United Kingdom. The language most commonly used between people of different nationalities, and particularly the aristocracy, was French. In fact, French was the language of diplomacy, culture and education. However, that is not the case nowadays. English has replaced French as the international language of communication. Today there are more people who speak English as a second language than people who speak it as a first language.

There are many reasons why English has become the language of international communication. Britain's colonization of many parts of the world had something to do with it, but it is mainly due to America's rise to the position of major world power. This helped spread popular American culture throughout the world bringing the language with it. But is it good that English has spread to all parts of the world so quickly? Language specialists seem to be divided over this issue. There are those who claim that it is important to have a language that the people in our increasingly globalized world have in common. According to others, English is associated with a particular culture

and therefore promotes that culture at the expense of others. Linguists have suggested "Esperanto", an artificially put-together language, as a solution to international communication problems but without success. So, English will continue being the world language until some other language, maybe Chinese, which is the most widely-spoken native language in the world, takes over as the world's international language instead of English. Question 43: According to the passage, a century ago....

A. educated people throughout Europe spoke English. B. foreign travelers to England spoke only French. C. French was much more popular than English. D. only the French aristocracy could speak English.

Question 44: What is chiefly responsible for the growth in popularity of English? A. Britain's becoming an international power. B. The French losing many colonies. C. America's becoming powerful. D. The development of American culture.

Question 45: What is meant by "the language of diplomacy" (lines 4)? A. The language used by ordinary people. B. The language used by the English and the French. C. The language used by the aristocracy. D. The language used by governments.

Question 46: What is true according to the passage? A. The experts don't like Esperanto. B. Esperanto is difficult to learn. C. Esperanto is not a natural language D. Esperanto is becoming more and more popular.

Question 47: The experts' opinion on the spread of English is ..... A. split B. positive C. negative D. undecided

Question 48: The author believes that..... A. English is easier to learn than Chinese. B. English will probably be replaced as an international language. C. Chinese is going to be the next language of international communication. D. Chinese is growing in popularity among non-native speakers.

Question 49: These days...... A. French is the language of diplomacy. B. more non-natives speak English than natives. C. more people speak French than English. D. French is a dying language.

Question 50: What would be a good title for this passage? A. English; Past, Present and Future B. English as an international Language C. English language means English culture D. English: a difficult language to learn

________THE END_________

ĐỀ SỐ 8 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. danger B. landscape C. hand D. nature Question 2: A. explosion B. exploration C. expertise D. expedition Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. acquaintance B. unselfish C. attractionD. humorous Question 4: A. managerial B. determination C. unbelievable D. inability Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: If you _____ less last night, you _____ so bad today.

A. had drunk – would not have felt

B. drank – would not feel

C. had drunk – would not feel

D. would have drunk – would not feel

Question 6: Son, along with his friends, ______ on a picnic in Cuc Phuong National Park at the end of this month. A. have to go B. will goC. are going D. is going

Question 7: “_____ TV for the last four hours? Turn it off and get some exercise.” A. Did you watch B. Are you watch

C.Did you watch D. Have you been watching Question 8: In the past six month, the company has already received twice ____ in gross revenues as it earned in

the entire preceding year. A. as much B. moreC. as many D. as more

Question 9: Information on events occurring in the theater ____ the year is available through our website. A. into B. throughout C. on D. as

Question 10: _____ for the money management seminar will be forwarded to all the managers tomorrow. A. Invite B. Invitations C. Inviting D.

Invitation

Question 11: The conference‟s keynote speaker addressed ____ impacts of digital technology on the current music industry.

A. variety B. variablyC. variation D. various

Question 12: Due to subway system repairs, service on this line has been ___ until next Tuesday. A. reserved B. suspended C. collectedD. distributed Question 13: Former footballer Tito Grimaldi is ____ a commentator and analyst for the Night Football Recap. A. currently B. carefully C. purposelyD. personally Question 14: Please ___ and see us some time. You‟re always welcome. A. come around B. come about C. come to D. come away Question 15: “_____ for you, I‟d never have had the courage to enter the talent show.”

A. Except B. But C. Had it not D. Apart

Question 16: I have seen that famous actor on television, but I have never seen him ____ person. A. by B. on C. of D. in Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 17: My mother is a live wire who is always as busy as a bee. A. a person who is lively and full of energy B. a person who is good at repairing electric devices C. a person who works leisurely all the time D. a person who is busy working with wiring Question 18: After considering it, I decided I had been wrong.

A. On refection B. After discussing with my wife

C.For this time only D. For the second time Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 19: The expansion of public services has caused concern that the civil service branches are becoming

autonomous powers. A. independent B. advanced C. superiorD. powerful Question 20: All organisms must obtain nutrients from the environment in order to sustain themselves.

A. isolate B. harvestC. acquire D. digest

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 21: California has more land under irrigation than any another states. A B C D Question 22: In the 1920‟s cinema became an important art form and one of the ten A B C largest industry in the United States. D Question 23: Ripe fruit is often stored in a place where contains much carbon dioxide A B C so that the fruit will not decay too rapidly. D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 24 to 28. Beatrix Potter was a story writer whose books about animals have been translated into many languages and read by both children and adults. (24) ___ being an author, she was also regarded as a very successful farmer. Born in London in 1866, Beatrix was cared for at home by various servants. Every year she counted the days to her annual holiday in the countryside. She would (25)____ to her London home small animals which she observed and drew. As she grew up, she entertained other children with drawings and stories about these animals. In 1901, she printed a book at her own (26) ____called “The Tale of Peter Rabbit”. So many copies were sold that she bought a farm, where over the next eight years she wrote many other stories. They are sold very well and readers liked their detailed color drawings. With her growing, (27) ____, Beatrix started buying more farmland, animals and property. After her marriage, at the age of 47, Beatrix stopped writing, saying that she had run out of (28)____. She became a farmer and spent the rest of her life working with her sheep and awarding prizes at sheep fairs. Question 24: A. Apart B. Besides C. Otherwise D. Except Question 25: A. get B. keep C. take D. give Question 26: A. earning B. spending C. expenseD. charge Question 27: A. pay B. income C. wages D. receipt Question 28: A. views B. ideas C. opinionsD. beliefs Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question from 29 to 35 Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today. Thousands of these How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles that begin with the words “How-to”. One book may tell you how to earn money. Another may tell you how to save or spend it and another may explain how to give your money away. Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to succeed in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book “How to Turn Failure into Success”. If you would like to become very rich, you can buy the book “How to Make a Millionaire”. If you never make any money at all, you may need a book called “How to Live on Nothing”. One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want to have a better love of life, you can read “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”. If you are tired of books on happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step in instructions on how to redecorate or enlarge a house. Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex. Today people have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to books helps people deal with modern life. Question 29: What is the passage mainly about?

A. How-to books

B. How to make a millionaire

C. How to turn failure into success

D. How to succeed in love every minute

Question 30: How-to books are the ones that _________ A. give instructions on how to do things

B. offer you entertainment after a hard-working day

C. develop your imagination or creativity

D. preserve traditions and customs

Question 31: There are How-to books that give you advice about money except ____ A. how to earn more moneyB. how to invest money in business

C.how to save or spend money D. how to give money away Question 32: How-to books that give advice on careers do not deal with ____

A. succeeding in job interviewsB. choosing a career

C.success in your careers D. turning failure into success Question 33: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______

A. advice B. How-to books

C.career D. instruction

Question 34: Which of the following is NOT the type of books giving information on careers? A. “How to Turn Failure into Success”

B. “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”

C. “How to Make a Millionaire”

D. “How to Live on Nothing”

Question 35: The reasons why How-to books have become popular are all the following except ____ A. life has become so complex

B. B. people have far more free time to use

C. people tend to read more books

D. people have more problems to solve

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question from 36 to 43

BLUE MOON “Blue moon” is a term that is used to describe the phenomenon of a second full moon occurring in one month. How could two full moons possibly occur in a single month? It is not nature‟s fault; the natural phases of the moon do not perfectly match up with the Roman calendar. Although still used today, this calendar was devised by Julius Caesar and Augustus Caesar over 2000 years ago. While the calendar works well, the method that they used does not match the lunar cycle exactly. Thus, occasionally the moon will go through its “full” phase twice before the month changes. A “blue moon” is an uncommon event. And its rare occurrence eventually led to the usage of the phrase “once in a blue moon”. This phrase was commonly used to indicate an event that could never happen. Over time, the meaning of the phrase changed from something that would never happen, to something that seldom happens. Today, this phrase is used to indicate extremely rate events, the absurd, or things that never happen. Question 36: What is the main purpose of this passage?

A. To explain the definition and the usage of “blue moon”

B. To inform readers of the difference between the Roman calendar and the

lunar calendar.

C. To support the importance of the lunar calendar

D. To illustrate the features of the moon

Question 37: According to the passage, what does the term “blue moon” refer to? A. A moon with the colour blue

B. Cold nights causing the moon appear blue

C. The second full moon in one month

D. Events that could never happen

Question 38: The word “phase” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to ____ A. Shape B. positionC. cycle D. influence

Question 39: Why doesn‟t our calendar match the lunar cycle exactly? A. It has more days than it should

B. The lunar cycle is wrong

C. Our calendar was not designed by humans

D. Our calendar was designed by humans

Question 40: Why did people use the expression “blue moon” to mean something that would never happen? A. Because the moon will never turn blue

B. Because we use the Roman calendar

C. Because it is rare two full moons to be in one month

D. Because the lunar cycle does not match our calendar

Question 41: the word “absurd” in paragraph 3 is closets in meaning to ____ A. Normal B. ridiculousC. interesting D. frequent

Question 42: According to the passage, which is the following is NOT true? A. The meaning of the phrase “blue moon” changed over the year

B. The phrase “once in a blue moon” could refer to two people eating dinner

together

C. The roman calendar was invented by Julius and Augustus Caesar

D. The roman calendar is still in use today

Question 43: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The phrase “blue moon” refers to frequency of the events

B. The usage of “blue moon” has not changed

C. The roman calendar matches the natural phases of the moon

D. Two full moons often occur in one month.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 44. - Julie: “You look stunning in that dress, Anna. How beautiful you are!” - Anna: “ ________” A. It‟s nice of you to say so. B. Thank you.

C. Don‟t mention it. D. You‟re very kind. Question 45. - Foreigner: “__________” - Hoa: “ Go straight. It‟s on the corner of Holly and Rose. Next to the library.”

A. Can you take me to the 3D Museum? B. I know it‟s rude but where‟s the 3D Museum. C. Could you show me the way to the 3D Museum? D. Can I get to the 3D Museum by car?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. Although engineers must make use of technology and innovations, these alone are not enough to pass engineering information. A. Technology and innovation is essential for engineers; however, there is still more in order to transmit engineering information. B. Engineering professionals advise to benefit from technology and advances so that they can pass on their engineering information. C. Whatever technology or information engineers use, transformation of the engineering information they possess can never be passed through. D. Almost all engineers have been interested in technology and advances in their fields, but they are generally bad at expressing their engineering information. Question 47. Unlike a high school education, a university education includes the application of knowledge. A. While in high schools students have the chance to apply their knowledge, in universities they don‟t. B. High school students lack the opportunity to apply their knowledge that university students have. C. High school education and university education are similar in that both include the application of knowledge. D. A university education is more useful than a high school education since it allows the students to apply knowledge. Question 48. Had I realized what you intended to do, I would have backed you up. A. Even if I had realized what you wanted to do, I wouldn‟t have supported you. B. In order to back you up, it is essential that I know what you intend to do. C. I didn‟t support you as I had no idea about what your plans were. D. No sooner did I back you up than I realized what you intended to do. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49. The team leader allowed members to make important decisions. He fostered their spirit of commitment. A. Allowing members to make important decisions, the team leader fostered their spirit of commitment. B. On the behalf of the team, the leader made important decisions to foster their spirit of commitment. C. Although the team leader wanted to foster the spirit of commitment among members, he made important decisions on his own. D. All member could make important decisions, so that the spirit of commitment would be discouraged. Question 50. Winston Churchill was a great politician and statesman. He also won the Nobel Prize for literature. A. Winston Churchill won the Nobel Prize for literature so he was great politician and statesman. B. Winston Churchill, a great politician and statesman, also won the Nobel Prize for literature. C. Winston Churchill was a great politician rather than a statesman although he won the Nobel Prize for literature. D. Winning the Nobel Prize for literature, Winston Churchill became a great politician and statesman.

ĐỀ SỐ 9 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. forget B. chore C. perform D. supportive Question 2:A. facial B. economic C. ocean D. beneficial Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. diversity B. biography C. curriculum D. intervention Question 4: A. discuss B. attempt C. reserve D. secret Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: A number of large insurance companieshas their headquarters in the capital city. A B C D Question 6: He can‟t hardly remember the accident because he was only a four-year-old boy when it A B C D occurred. Question 7: My uncle is inNhaTrangon vacation, but I wish he is here so that he could help me repair A B C D my bicycle. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: Look! The yard is wet. It …………… last night. A. had to rain B. ought to rain C. must have rained D. should have rained Question 9: The more you study during the semester, …………. the week before exams. A. the less you have to study B. you have to study the less C. the least you have to study D. the study less you have Question 10: My mother ……….. strawberries for years but she has never had such a good crop before.

A. is growing B. has been growing C. grew D. had grown

Question 11: A giant meteor crashing into the Earth is believed ……………. the extinction of dinosaur. A. to have caused B. to cause C. having

caused D. causing Question 12: …………… he followed my advice, he would not be unemployed now.

A. Were B. Had C. Should D. Unless

Question 13: In England schooling is compulsory _______ all children from the age of 5 to 16. . A. with B. over C. to D. for Question 14: The equator is an …………. line that divides the earth into two.

A. imaginary B. imaginative C. imagination D. imaginable

Question 15: Many restaurants do not ………. their customers to bring pets into the premises. A. require B. discourage C. permit

D. insist Question 16: Tom had to ……. three forms and pay a fine before they allowed him to take his car back.

A. give out B. turn up C. fill out D. put in

Question 17: The principal has ………… an urgent meeting with the teachers. A. called for B. picked out C. turned on

D. made up Question 18: While on a tour, tourists are only given a ………… time at each place of attraction.

A. confined B. limited C. particular D. certain

Question 19: The chairman didn‟t make any ………… upon the matter. A. opinion B. comment C. investment

D. evaluation Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: - Interviewer: “…………………..” - Interviewee: “Thank you” A. Sit yourself, OK? B. Be seated, please. C. Seat down, will you? D. Please take a sit. Question 21: - “Thanks for inviting me to dinner.”

- “………………………” A. Don‟t worry about it. B. You‟re welcome. Come in and make yourself at home.

C. There‟s no need to say that. D. Take it easy. Cheer up. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: His precise explanation of the report pleased the board of directors. A. timely B. exact C. prompt D. ready Question 23: Bullying can hurt people in many different ways, emotionally and physically. Therefore, all the students in my class keep away from the bully. A. notice B. defend C. annoy D. avoid Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Cholera is rare in less developed countries due to poor water and sanitation conditions. It is estimated that 11 million cholera cases occur every year among children under 5 years of age. A. common B. ordinary C. general D. normal Question 25: We waited for our grandmother at the departure hall of the airport for 5 hours as her flight was delayed. A. release B. appearance C. arrival D. transfer Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: As soon as I arrived home, someone knocked at the door.

A. I had to arrive home as someone knocked at the door. B. Had someone knocked at the door, I would have arrived home. C. No sooner had I arrived home than someone knocked at the door. D. I hardly knew someone knocked at the door as I just arrived home.

Question 27: Mr. Kha remembered to take everything except his front door key. A. The only thing which Mr. Kha forgot was his front door key. B. Mr. Kha remembered to take everything including his front door key. C. The only thing that Mr. Kha remembered was his front door key. D. Except his front door key, Mr. Kha forgot everything.

Question 28: For a cold, doctors often recommend that you rest and drink lots of fluids. A. The doctors recommend that you have cold soft drinks. B. Doctors would rather give advice about cold than about fluids. C. Rest and liquids are frequently advised for treatment of colds. D. You were told to come in out of the cold and rest.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: The proposal seemed like a good idea. The manager refused it.

A. The manager refused the proposal though it seemed like a good idea. B. Since the proposal seemed like a good idea, the manager refused it. C. The manager didn‟t like to proposal because it didn‟t seem a good

idea. D. The proposal didn‟t seem like a good idea, so the manager didn‟t

accept it. Question 30: Winston Churchill was a great politician and statesman. He also won the Nobel Prize for literature.

A. Winston Churchill won the Nobel Prize for literature so he was a great politician and statesman.

B. Winston Churchill, a great politician and statesman, also won the Nobel Prize for literature.

C. Winston Churchill was a great politician rather than a statesman although he won the Nobel Prize for literature.

D. Winning the Nobel Prize for literature, Winston Churchill became a great politician and statesman.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. The Internet is a great place to look up information. The same information may be found in libraries, but the Internet makes the information (31) …………. 24 hours a day. Furthermore, information on the Internet may be more up-to-date, and some would never be found in a library. The Internet is not a replacement for libraries, (32)………….. it is an extremely valuable supplement. When you are (33) …………… to the Internet, you are ready to start searching. The basic step for finding what you are looking for in a fast and easy way is: Find a search engine. A search engine is a useful (34)…………. for looking up information on the Internet. Basically, it is an Internet site that will do the searching on the Internet for you. There are many different search engines and web sites for you to use. They are divided up (35) …………… several different categories for your convenience. This will allow you to select a site that will be better for searching different topics. Question 31: A. capable B. available C. manageable D. observable Question 32: A. so B. and C. though D. but

Question 33: A. facilitated B. connected C. attached D. purchased Question 34: A. room B. machine C. tool D. pilot Question 35: A. into B. for C. between D. with Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Alligators and crocodiles are both native to America, and they both belong to the group of animals called crocodilians. They also look similar, and many people might even think they are the same animal. There are several differences that can be used to tell them apart. American alligators are much more common than American crocodiles. Because they hate the cold, alligators live in the southeastern part of the country usually in freshwater lakes and swamps. Their skin is dark with bright stripes and spots of yellow. They eat almost anything they can catch, including fish, birds, and occasionally people! Until 1970, it was legal to hunt them, but too many were killed for their skins. Now there are strict controls on hunting, and alligators are again numerous in many areas. There are also strict controls on the hunting of deer and other animals. American crocodiles are a bit different. They are even more sensitive to cold, so they live only in the tropical climate of southern Florida. Most crocodiles prefer the saltwater of coastal areas. They are very shy, so people do not often see them in the wild. Their skin is grayish-green or brown, and their heads are longer and more triangle-shaped than that of an alligator. They eat only fish and other water animals. Crocodiles are listed as an endangered species, so they are also protected by US law. Question 36: What would be the best title for this passage? A. Alligators and Crocodiles: American Brothers B. Crocodilians: Similarities and Differences C. The Animals of the Swamp D. Hunting Crocodiles: Terror in the Swamp Question 37: What don‟t alligators eat? A. water animals B. fish C. garbage D. people Question 38: The word “them”in the passage refers to …………… A. alligators B. people C. birds D. crocodiles Question 39: Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. Alligators and crocodiles look exactly the same. B. Alligators and crocodiles both prefer warm places. C. Alligators and crocodiles both often hurt people. D. Alligators and crocodiles are both protected.

Question 40: Which of the following sentences should NOT belong in the passage? A. They look similar, and so many people might even think they are the

same animal. B. Their skin is dark, with bright stripes and spots of yellow. C. There are also strict controls on the hunting of deer and other animals. D. They eat only fish and other water animals.

Question 41: Which of the following words best describes how the passage is written? A. chronographic B. storytelling C. comparative D. argumentative Question 42: The passage is most likely taken from …………….

A. an encyclopedia B. an article C. an advertisement D. an autobiography

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctanswer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. One question that is being debated these days is whether or not genetic engineering is a good thing. We hear this term “genetic engineering” with increasing frequency these days. For those readers who may not be sure of its meaning, some definitions follow. When we speak of genes, we are referring to chemical substances in the cells of all-living things that establish an organism‟s characteristics. Genetic engineering is the changing of certain genes, usually to improve an organism in some way. In recent years, for example, certain genes have been placed in tomato plants to make tomatoes taste better and keep them fresh in supermarket for a longer time. Cows have been treated with a growth hormone that makes dairy cattle give more milk and reduces the amount of fat in the meat of beef cattle. These sound like positive things, don‟t they? After all, many people say, the technology exists to improve our lives. But there are plenty of people around who oppose genetic engineering. Why? Two specific objections come to mind. One is that the balance of nature might be upset. Suppose, for example, that scientists are able to genetically engineer certain plants so that insects will not eat them. This will protect the plants, but the insects will be deprived of a food supply- and other animals that depend on those insects for food will lose their food supply, too. A second objection is a moral question. Is it acceptable or right for us to change the makeup of living things? Supporters of genetic engineering say the benefits outweigh the dangers. Look at all the improvements that can be made in plants raised for food, they say. Because of genetic engineering, plants can be grown that produce more fruits and vegetables and resist disease. In a word where more and more food will be needed in the future, this is a benefit. The medical advances provided by genetic engineering, say the supporters, are even more impressive. Consider cancer, for example. If genetic engineering can provide a way to cure or prevent this disease, shouldn‟t it be used? And if genetic engineering can be used to kill the virus that causes AIDS, shouldn‟t it be permitted?

Opponents of genetic engineering say it should be stopped, or at least limited. Proponents of genetic engineering say it should be promoted and expanded. The debate goes on. Question 43: What is TRUE about genetic engineering, according to paragraph 1?

A. It increases people‟s age. B. It improves fat in the meat.

C. It changes gene‟s parameters. D. It reduces the number of cells. Question 44: Genetic engineering is said to be aimed at ……………… A. changing genes of plants and animals

B. placing new genes into plants C. establishing an organism‟s characteristics

D. improving an organism in some way Question 45: The word “One” in the passage refers to …………….. A. specific objection B. mind C. balance of nature D. example Question 46: It is stated in paragraph 2 that …………………

A. scientists control the number of insects

B. ecosystems should be counter balanced

C. insects protect the plants from extinction

D. people should be concerned about wild animals

Question 47: The word “outweigh”in the passage is closest in meaning to …………. A. have the same value B. be of greater importance C. weigh heavier than D. be less expensive Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the supporters of genetic engineering? A. It has more advantages than weak points. B. It will help to achieve record harvests. C. It can be controlled and stopped any moment. D. It will mean breakthrough in medicine. Question 49: All of the following is mentioned in the passage EXCEPT …………. A. genetic engineering will save plants and insects from extinction B. certain genes can make some vegetables more delicious C. genetic engineering could help sick people D. it‟s harmful to interfere in animal life Question 50: Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage? A. Can genetic engineering be harmful to environment? B. People can manage genetic engineering. C. Genetic engineering: Super foods D. Genetic engineering: Forward or Backward?

---THE END---

ĐỀ SỐ 10

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from

the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. home B. phone C. bomb D. both Question 2: A. hoped B. halved C. moved D. learned

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in

the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. photogenic B. agricultural C. application D. curriculum Question 4: A. undergraduate B. university C. geography D. mathematics Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: Bob asked that Tom would mind waiting for him for a moment.

A. that B. would C. waiting for D. for a moment Question 6: Her brother seems to be incapablein looking after himself. A. seems B. incapable C. in looking D. himself Question 7: You shouldattract more attention to what your teacher explains. A. should B. attract C. what D. explains

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following

questions.

Question 8: In some countries, a man and a woman may hold hands and kiss each other _________ public. A. at B. in C. on D. among

Question 9: _________, we apologize. A.If we have done something to hurt someone‟s feeling B. If we had done something to hurt someone‟s feeling C. If we were doing something to hurt someone‟s feeling D.If we will have done something to hurt someone‟s feeling

Question 10: We can communicate _________ through words _________ through body language. A. from/ to B. between/ and C. not only/ but also D. neither/ nor

Question 11: It is high time to take measures to save _________ species. A. dangerous B. endangered C. indangered D. wildlife

Question 12: Hand _________ can mean a person is interested in the conversation. A. gestures B. postures C. movements D. expressions

Question 13: In my family, the interest we share _________ is watching football. A. closing B. close C. close-knit D. closely

Question 14: By the end of this month, I _________ for this company for three years. A. have been working B. will be working C. will work D. will have worked

Question 15: In some Asian countries, love is supposed _________ marriage, not precede it. A. to follow B. to come C. to access D. to approach

Question 16 : Please ________ me a hand with the laundry. A. take B. help C. give D. do Question 17: ________ is the bus? - Every ten minutes. A. How far B. How long C. How much D. How often Question 18: If you don‟t know when that important football match takes place, look it ________ in the World Cup timetable. A. into B. out C. up D. after Question 19: Why is he so ________ in this job all the time? A. socializing B. socialize C. social D. sociable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete

each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: This is at the beginning of a telephone conversation. - Mary: “Can I speak to Daisy?” - Daisy: “Yes, ______.” A. It‟s alright B. answering C. I‟m here D. speaking

Question 21: - David: “I thought your badminton was a lot better today.” – Kathy: “_________. I didn‟t play so well as I had expected.”

A. Thanks David B. You must be kidding C. You are great D. I am glad you like it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The wedding banquet is often scheduled at the groom and bride‟s house or at a hotel or a restaurant.

A. a formal party B. an enormous breakfast C. a formal conference D. an informal party

Question 23: The government will have to take the blame for the riots. A. responsibility B. complaint C. task D. work

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: His boss didn‟t make a big fuss about the mistake he had made . A. complained strongly B. forgave C. made a mess D. made noise Question 25: The roads in my neighbourhood are so narrow. A. busy B. wide C. quiet D. muddy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: “I‟ll come to see you next Saturday,” Ann said to me.

A. Ann said to me she would come to see me next Saturday. B. Ann promised to come to see me the next Saturday. C. Ann promised me to come to see me the next Saturday. D. Ann said me she would come to see me the next Saturday.

Question 27: No one has found the missing dog since yesterday.

A. The missing dog has not found since yesterday. B. The missing dog has gone away without being found. C. The missing dog has not been found since yesterday. D. The missing dog that was last seen yesterday wasn‟t found.

Question 28: No, it‟s not true. I didn‟t steal the money. A. Jean denies stealing the money. B. Jean admits stealing the money. C. Jean stole the money. D. Jean refuses to steal the money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: It is very cold at the moment. We aren‟t travelling to the North.

A. If it is not so cold, we will travel to the North. B. Were it not so cold, we‟d be travelling to the North. C. We wouldn‟t travel to the North unless it were so cold. D. As it was cold, we were not travelling to the North.

Question 30: We had a flat tire. It took us three hours longer than usual to get there.

A. It took us three extra hours to get there because we had a flat tire. B. It usually takes us three hours to get there unless we have a flat tire. C. It wouldn‟t take us longer to get there if we didn‟t have a flat tire. D. The fact that we had a flat tire made us to get there three hours late.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

One of the most important factors of a standardized test is time. You‟ll only be allowed a certain number

of minutes for each section, so it is very important that you use your time (31) _________. The most important

time strategy is pacing yourself. Before you begin, take just a few seconds to survey the test, noting the number

of questions and the sections that looks easier than the rest. Then, make a rough time schedule based on the

amount of time (32) _________ to you. Mark the halfway point on your test and make a note beside that mark of

the time when the testing period is half over.

Once you begin the test, continue moving. If you work slowly in an attempt to make fewer mistakes, your

mind will become bored and begin to wander. You‟ll end up making far (33) _________ mistakes if you are not

concentrating. If you take too long to answer questions that stump you, you may end up (34) _________ out of

time before you finish. So don‟t stop for difficult questions. Skip them and move on. You can come back to them

later if you have time. A question that takes you five seconds to answer counts as much as one that takes you

several minutes, so pick up the easy point first. (35) _________, answering the easier questions first helps build

your confidence and gets you in the testing groove.

Question 31: A. quickly B. wisely C. fast D. hardly

Question 32: A. close B. similar C. available D. suitable

Question33:A. many B. more C. from D. away

Question34: A. short B. cutting C. running D. moving

Question35: A. So B. Therefore C. However D. Besides

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the working memory. There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing information, one can organize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term storage. When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people engage in „rote rehearsal‟. By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will probably forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practise „elaborate rehearsal‟. This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories. Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by recognition or recall. Human can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization. Question36: According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?

A. They revert from the long term memory. B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area. C. They get chunked when they enter the brain. D. They enter via the nervous system.

Question37: All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the _________. A. STM B. long term memory C. sensory storage area D. maintenance area

Question 38: Why does the author mention a dog‟s bark? A. To give an example of a type of memory. B. To provide a type of interruption. C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans. D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell.

Question 39: How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time? A. By organizing it. B. By repeating it. C. By giving it a name. D. By drawing it.

Question 40: The author believes that rote rehearsal is _________. A. the best way to remember something B. more efficient than elaborate rehearsal C. ineffective in the long run D. an unnecessary information

Question 41: The word “elaborate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________. A. complex B. efficient C. pretty D. regular

Question 42: Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage? A. The working memory is the same as the short term memory. B. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition. C. Cues help people to recognize information. D. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

You can usually tell when your friends are happy or angry by the looks on their faces or by their actions.

This is useful because reading their emotional expressions helps you to know how to respond to them. Emotions

have evolved to help us respond to important situations and to convey our intentions to others. But does raising

the eyebrows and rounding the mouth say the same thing in Minneapolis as it does in Madagascar? Much

research on emotional expressions has centered on such questions.

According to Paul Ekman, the leading researcher in this area, people speak and understand substantially

the same „facial language‟. Studies by Ekman‟s group have demonstrated that humans share a set of universal

emotional expressions that testify to the common biological heritage of the human species. Smiles, for example,

signal happiness and frowns indicate sadness on the faces of people in far-flung places as Argentina, Japan,

Spain, Hungary, Poland, Sumatra, the United States, Vietnam, the jungles of New Guinea and the Eskimo

villagers north of the Artic circle. Ekman and his colleagues claim that people everywhere can recognize at least

seven basic emotions: sadness, fear, anger, disgust, contempt, happiness, and surprise. There are, however,

huge differences across cultures in both the context and intensity of emotional displays – the so-called display

rules. In many Asian cultures, for example, children are taught to control emotional responses – especially

negative ones – while American children are encouraged to express their feelings more openly. Regardless of

culture, however, emotions usually show themselves, to some degree, in people‟s behavior. From their first days

of life, babies produce facial expressions that communicate their feelings.

The ability to read facial expressions develops early, too. Very young children pay close attention to facial

expressions, and by age five they nearly equal adults in their skill at reading emotions on people‟s faces. This

evidence all points to a biological underpinning for our abilities to express and interpret a basic set of human

emotions. Moreover, as Charles Darwin pointed out over a century ago, some emotional expressions seem to

appear across species boundaries. Cross-cultural psychologists tell us that certain emotional responses carry

different meanings in different cultures. For example, what emotion, you suppose, might indicate disgust, while in

China it can signify surprise. Likewise, a grin on an American face may indicate joy, while on a Japanese face it

may, just as easily, mean embarrassment. Clearly, culture influences emotional expressions.

Question 43: Smiles and frowns_________.

A. are not popular everywhere

B. have different meanings in different cultures

C. are universal expressions across cultures

D. do not convey the same emotions in various cultures

Question 44: The biggest difference lies in _________.

A. how emotional responses are controlled

B. how intensive emotions are expressed

C. how long negative emotions are displayed

D. how often positive emotions are shown

Question 45: Paul Ekman is mentioned in the passage as an example of _________.

A. investigators on universal emotional expressions

B. researchers on universal language

C. researchers who can speak and understand many languages

D. lacks of many main ingredients

Question 46: The word „evolved‟ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.

A. developed B. reduced C. simplified D. increased

Question 47: Young children _________.

A. make amazing progress in controlling their emotions

B. take time to control their facial expressions

C. spend a long time learning to read others‟ emotions

D. are sensitive towards others‟ emotions

Question 48: Many studies on emotional expressions try to answer the questions whether _________.

A. raising the eyebrows has similar meaning to rounding the mouth

B. rounding the mouth has the same meaning in Minneapolis and Madagascar

C. eyebrows raising means the same in Minneapolis and Madagascar

D. different cultures have similar emotional expressions

Question 49: The phrase „This evidence‟ in paragraph 3 refers to _________.

A. A biological underpinning for humans to express emotions

B. the fact that children can control their feelings

C. the fact that children are good at recognizing others‟ emotions

D. human facial expressions

Question 50: The best title of the passage is _________.

A. Ways to control emotional expressions.

B. A view of researchers on emotional expressions

C. Human habit of display emotions

D. Cultural universals in emotional expressions

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ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ SỐ 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:A. ploughed B. coughed C. laughed D. photographed Question 2:A.bushes B. offices C. blades D.branches Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. diverse B. require C. oblige D. caring Question 4: A. countryman B. sacrifice C. supportive D. marvelous Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5:Every fuel has their own particular temperature at which it begins to burn. A.to burn B.Every fuel C.at which D.their own Question 6:As his car had beenbroken down, she gave him a lift to work . A B C D Question 7: I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been workinglike a teacher for a A B C D long time. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: You should try to cooperate __________ that organization __________ every way. A.to – in B. with – in C. with – for D.to – for

Question 9:While in Europe on vacation, the twins roamed the countryside on their bikes. A. rounded B. rocked C. wandered D. rustled Question 10: There was a long period without rain in this area last year so the harvest was poor. A. famine B. flood C. drought D. epidemic Question 11: I have written her 3 letters but she hasn‟t answered __________them. A. any ofB.some ofC.some D.any

Question12:Nearly all of the reporters__________ the press conference had questions __________. A.attended/asked B. attending/to ask C.attending/asked D.attended/to ask

Question 13:Neither the nurses nor the doctor __________ there when the patient died. A.are B.is C.were D. was

Question 14:Can you keep calm for a moment? You_________ noise in class! A. are always making B. are always made C.always make D.have always made

Question15:Children! It‟s time you ___________ away those toys. A.tidy B.should tidy C. tidied D.to tidy

Question 16:___________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped with the project. A.If it had been B.Hadn‟t it been C. If it hadn‟t been D.had it been

Question17:Doctor: “You __________ take more than two of these pills at once. Three might be fatal”. A. mustn‟t B.needn‟t C.don‟t D.mightn‟t

Question18:“Could you please turn off the stove? The potatoes _________ for at least 30 minutes. A.boils B.were boiling C.are boiling D. have been boiling Question19: The boy has a collection of _____________. A. old valuable Australian stamps B. valuable Australian old stamps C. valuable old Australian stamps D. old Australian valuable stamps Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Ann: “__________!” Sarah: “Thank you. I‟m glad you like it.” A. What a lovely hat you have! B.How lovely hat you are! C.How your hat is lovely! D.What lovely your hat is! Question 21: Tom: “ My first English test was not as good as I expected.”

Sam: “_______________.”

A. Good Heavens! B. That‟s brilliant enough! C. Never mind, better job next time. D. It‟s okay, don‟t worry. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: You may jot down your qualifications and experience that can relate to the job. A.turn down B. note down C.pull down D.put down

Question 23: Many large corporations will be wiped out and millions of jobs will be lost. A.replaced completely B.renewed completely C.reduced completely D. removed completely Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Why, according to pessimists, will the security of the earth be threatened? A.scientists B. optimists C.conservationists D.enthusiastists Question 25: She is carrying out a health project for the disadvantaged in inner cities and rural areas. A. urban B. mountainous C. suburban D. coastal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following questions. Question 26: “Why didn‟t your girlfriend attend the party?” he said. A. He asked me why my girlfriend didn‟t attend the party. B. He asked me why didn‟t my girlfriend attend the party. C. He asked me why my girlfriend hadn‟t attended the party. D. He asked me why had my girlfriend not attended the party. Question 27: “Are you waiting for your exam result?” she said. A. She asked me was I waiting for my exam result. B. She asked me if I was waiting for my exam result. C. She asked me whether was I waiting for my exam result. D. She asked me whether I was waiting for your exam result. Question 28: Fighting back tears, Sarah ran back to her room. A. Sarah ran back to her room because of a fight. B. Sarah tried not to cry and ran back to her room. C. When someone had a fight, Sarah ran back to her room. D. Fighting made Sarah cry and run back back to her room. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it. A. Although she didn‟t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it. B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn‟t pass it. C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test. D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily. Question 30: We didn‟t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel. A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel. B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel. C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money. D. We didn‟t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

(31)______ more and more countries become industrialized, there will be more and more competition for petroleum for cars, home heating, and industry. While (32)_______petroleum contributes greatly to acid rain, it is less polluting than coal. Unfortunately, petroleum is more expensive than coal and the supply of petroleum will eventually (33)________ out. Therefore, there will be more and more pressure to burn coal for energy. Coal is a much dirtier energy source than petroleum. Since we already know (34)_______ destructive acid rain is, it is very important that we increase our efforts to find a non-polluting source of energy as quickly as possible (35)_______ we can avoid further environmental damage. Question 31: A. Although B. Even C.As D. Also Question 32:A. burning B. flowing C. blowing D. releasing Question 33: A. use B. eat C. run D. make Question 34: A. what B. that C. which D. how Question 35:A. so that B. but C. if D. because

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals

and tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by humans

on foot or on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of information between

two places. The telegram and telephone set the stage for more modem means of communication. With the

invention of the cellular phone, communication itself has become mobile.

For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in touch with family

and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text messages. The definition of a cell phone is more

specific. It is a hand-held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small

special areas called cells.

Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplexcommunication devices. They make it possible for

two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular phones because

they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a half-duplex

communication device because only one person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a full-duplex device

because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has

more than a thousand channels. A walkie-talkie can transmit and receive signals across a distance of about

a mile. A cell phone can transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles. In 1973, an electronic

company called Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless communication. Motorola and Bell

Laboratories (now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first portable communication device. Martin Cooper

won the race and became the inventor of the cell phone. On April 3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone

call to his opponent at AT&T while walking down the streets of New York City. People on the sidewalks

gazed at Cooper in amazement. Cooper's phone was called A Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping

2.5 pounds (as compared to today's cell phones that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces) After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone available to

the general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phones for commercial use. The early cell phone and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $ 3,500. In 1977, AT&T constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2,000 customers. In 1981, a second cellular phone system was started in the Washington D.C. and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for cell phones to become available for general public use. Today, there are more than sixty million cell phone customers with cell phones producing over thirty billion dollars per year.

Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage? A.The increasing number of people using cell phone. B.How Cooper competed with AT&T. C.The history of a cell phone. D.The difference between cell phones and telephones.

Question 37: What definition is true of a cell phone? A.A hand-held wireless communication device. B.A version of walkie-talkie. C.The first product of two famous corporations. D.Something we use just for playing games.

Question 38: What is wrong about a walkie-talkie? A.It has one channel. B.It was first designed in 1973. C.It can be used within a distance of a mile. D.Only one person can talk at a time.

Question 39: The word "duplex" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______ A.quick B.modern C.having two parts D.having defects

Question 40: To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call? A.A person on New York street. B.The director of his company. C.A member of Bell Laboratories. D.His assistant at Motorola.

Question 41: How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today's cell phones?

A. ten times as heavy as B.as heavy as

C.much lighter D.2 pounds heavier

Question 42: When did Motorola introduce the first cell phones for commercial use? A.in 1981 B. in 1983 C.in the same year when AT& T constructed a cell phone system D.in the early years when he first made a cell- phone call

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded annually and the first woman to win this prize was Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner in 1905. In fact, her work inspired the creation of the Prize. The first American woman to win this prize was Jane Addams, in 1925. However, Addams is best known as the founder of Hull House. Jane Addams was born in 1860, into a wealthy family. She was one of a small number of women in her generation to graduate from college. Her commitment to improving the lives of those around her led her to work for social reform and world peace. In the 1880s Jane Addams traveled to Europe. While she was in London, she visited a 'settlement house' called Toynbee Hall. Inspired by Toynbee Hall, Addams and her friend, Ellen Gates Starr, opened Hull House in a neighborhood of slums in Chicago in 1899. Hull House provided a day care center for children of working mothers, a community kitchen, and visiting nurses. Addams and her staff gave classes in English literacy, art, and other subjects. Hull House also became a meeting place for clubs and labor unions. Most of the people who worked with Addams in Hull House were well educated, middle-class women. Hull House gave them an opportunity to use their education and it provided a training ground for careers in social work. Before World War I , Addams was probably the most beloved woman in America. In a newspaper poll that asked, "Who among our contemporaries are of the most value to the community?" Jane Addams was rated second, after Thomas Edison. When she opposed America's involvement in World War I, however, newspaper editors called her a traitor and a fool, but she never changed her mind. Jane Addams was a strong champion of several other causes. Until 1920, American women could not vote. Addams joined in the movement for women's suffrage and was a vice president of the National American Woman Suffrage Association. She was a founding member of the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People (NAACP) and was president of the Women's International League for Peace and Freedom. Her reputation was gradually restored during the last years of her life. She died of cancer in 1929. Question 43: With which of the following subjects is the passage mainly concerned ? A. The first award of the Nobel Peace Prize to an American woman B. A woman's work for social reform and world peace C. The early development of Social Work in America D. Contributions of educated women to American society Question 44: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The work of Baroness Bertha Felicie Sophie von Suttner was an inspiration to Jane Addams. B. Jane Addams is most famous for her opening of Hull House. C. Those who lived near Hull House had very poor literacy skills. D. Jane Addams considered herself as a citizen of the world rather than of one particular country. Question 45: The word "commitment" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. A. involvement B. obligation C. dedication D. enthusiasm Question 46: Jane Addams was inspired to open Hull House because ________. A. it gave educated women an opportunity to use their education and develop careers in social work B. she traveled to Europe in the 1880s C. she visited Toynbee Hall D. she was invited by a 'settlement house' in Chicago Question 47: The word "their" in paragraph two refers to ________. A. children of working mothers B. middle - class women C. visiting nurses D. labor union members Question 48: The word 'contemporaries' in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. A. people of the same time B. famous peple still alive C. elected officials D. people old enough to move Question 49: According to the passage, Jane Addams' reputation was damaged when she _________ . A. allowed Hull House to become a meeting place for clubs and labor unions B. joined in the movement for women's sufferage C. became a founding member of the NAACP D. opposed America's involvement in World War I Question 50: In paragraph three, the word "gradually" is closest in meaning to _________ . A. in no time B. step by step C. minute by minute D. time after time

ĐỀ SỐ 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. included B. wanted C. decided D. noticed Question 2. A. perfume B. persuade C. return D. purse Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. effort B. survive C. enlarge D. disguise Question 4. A. reliable B. conventional C. insurance D. intellectual Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: One of the most effective method of helping children learn new vocabulary words is to A B teach unfamiliar words used in a text prior to the reading experience.

C D Question 6: Vietnamese students may encounter some problems when studying in abroad.

A B C D Question 7: Daisy is reading her essay because she has a test tomorrow. She should be studying.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions Question 8: “ Hello. My name‟s Richard” _ “__________” A. Are you Richard? B. Mine‟s John, hello C. Yes, I know D. Oh, ok thank you Question 9: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!” Sue: “__________” A. Don‟t mention it. B. How dare you? C. I‟m afraid so. D. Thank you. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 10: Organizing some extra-curricula activities has occupied a lot of my time recently.

A. taken in B. taken up C. taken over D. taken after Question 11: Everything was in a thorough mess.

A. utter B. full C. complete D. appalling Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 12: John failed to stop smoking though he had had a bad cough. A. successful B. was able C. could D. succeed Question 13: This shouldn‟t be too taxing for you.

A. comfortable B. demanding C. easy D. relaxing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions. Question 14: We bought some_________.

A. German lovely old glasses C. German old lovely glasses B. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses

Question 15: This is the third time James__________ the volunteer program to the village. A. joins B. joined C. has joined D. has been joining

Question 16: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is,________. A. the more heat it retains B. the heat it retains more

C. it retains the more heat D. more heat it retains Question 17: He was so awkward, but luckily only one of the dinner _________ broken. A. plate was B. plates have been C. plates was D. plares is Question 18: We should participate in the movements _________ the natural environment. A. organizing to conserve B. organized conserving C. which organize to conserve D. organized to conserve Question 19: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ___ what she missed when she was away.

A. cut down on B. put up with C. catch up on D. take up with Question 20: The workers'claim for a ten percent pay rise has been under ________ by the government. A. consideration B. inquiry C. regard D. application Question 21: The _________ dressed woman in the advertisement has a pose smile on her face. A. stylistic B. stylishly C. stylish D. stylistically Question 22: I haven't got a passport, _______ means I can't leave my country.

A. which B. that C. this D. it Question 23: The goverment should take ________ to reduce the current high unemployment rate.

A. step B. measures C. changes D. solutions Question 24: Only because she had to support her family _________ to leave school.

A. that Alice decides B. did Alice decide C. does Alice decide D. Alice decide Question 25: George won five medals at the competition. His parents_________ very proud of him.

A. can‟t be B. can‟t have C. must have been D. could have been Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are killing our leisure time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations (and when we do go away, we take our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice mail, cell phones, and the Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure. Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices would free them from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow intellectually, creatively, and socially – exploring the arts, keeping up with current events, spending more time with friends and family, and even just „goofing off‟. But here we are at the start of the 21

st century, enjoying one of the greatest technological boom

times in human history, and nothing could be further from the truth. The very tools that were supposed to liberate us have bound us to our work and study in ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that technology almost never does what we expect. In „the old days‟, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People left their offices at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of touch with their jobs as they traveled to and from work, and were off-duty once they were home. That is no longer true. In today‟s highly competitive job market, employers demand increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours and to keep in touch almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a result, employees feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days off. They feel pressured to work after hours just to catch up on everything they have to do. Workers work harder and longer, change their work tasks more frequently, and have more and more reasons to worry about job security. Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to voice mail and e-mail messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks by an environment in which faculty, friends, and other members of the college community increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent on instant messaging services would probably show staggering use. This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from genetic research to the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when new tools make life more difficult and stressful rather than easier and more meaningful – and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then something has gone seriously awry, both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it should benefit us. From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher Question 26: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were designed to make our lives easier__________. A. have brought us complete happiness

B. have fully met our expectations C. have not interfered with our privacy

D. have turned out to do us more harm than good Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to new surveys? A. They make our life more stressful. B. They bring more leisure to our life. C. They are used even during vacations. D. They are being increasingly used. Question 28: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”______”. A. unforgettable B. unimaginable C. predictable D. foreseeable Question 29: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that__________. A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices Question 30: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to__________. A. employers B. employees C. workers D. tasks Question 31: This passage has probably been taken from__________. A. a science review B. a political journal C. an advertisement D. a fashion magazine Question 32: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Expectations and Plain Reality B. Benefits of Technology C. Research on the Roles of Computers D. Changes at the Workplace Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (33)________ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year‟s consumption would stretch to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n) (34)________ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal. (35)________ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, lovely - you now have vitamin-fortified sugar! Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (36)________ sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel. There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (37)________ whole grains and are sugar-free.

From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo Question 33: A. to lay B. laying C. lay D. laid Question 34: A. charge B. average C. cost D. expense Question 35: A. Most B. Mostly C. Almost D. Furthermost Question 36: A. tall B. large C. high D. many Question 37: A. by B. from C. at D. in Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow while its problems can be solved. On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others. On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is, industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive. Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country. Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental regulations. One of the key problems of the 21

st century will be determining to what extent markets should be

regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale. From “Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD]

Question 38: It is stated in the passage that_________. A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries C. suppoters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia Question 39: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that__________. A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products B. there will be less competition among producers C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased

D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries Question 40: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “___________”. A. removed B. solved C. offered D. distributed Question 41: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “_________”. A. makes sellers responsive to any changes

B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet C. forces sellers to go bare-footed

D. prevents sellers from selling new products Question 42: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of__________. A. their neo-liberal policies B. their help to developing countries C. their prevention of bubbles D. their protectionism and subsidies Question 43: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are__________. A. successful economies B. young companies

C. development strategies D. young industries Question 44: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed. B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization. C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies. D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety. Question 45: The debate over globalization is about how__________. A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries B. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization C. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community D. to terminate globalization in its entirely Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 46: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too.

A. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese. B. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at. C. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese. D. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese.

Question 47: It’s a bad line. Do you want me to give you a ring later? A. Can I call you later? B. I would like to give you a ring as a present. C. Would you like to become my wife? D. Can I give the ring back to you later?

Question 48: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the test. A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test. B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn‟t finish the test. C. Although she didn‟t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test. D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later.

A. If they arrive late, we‟d better leave them a note. B. We‟d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later. C. They‟ll probably arrive later so that we‟d better leave them a note. D. We‟d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.

Question 50: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past. A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries. B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past. C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past. D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.

_______THE END________

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:A. missed B.laughed C. stopped D. closed Question 2:A.tooth B. boot C. smooth D. look Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3:A. disappear B.arrangement C. apponent D.contractual Question 4:A. invention B. delicate C.domestic D.bacteria Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: With the victory over Germany in the final match, Brazil became the first team wonthe trophy A B C five times. D Question 6: : Globally and internationally, the 1990's stood out as the warmest decade in the history of A B C weather records. D Question 7:All of his friends were surprisingat his success A BC D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8:Whistling or clapping hands to get someone„s attention is considered ______ and even rude in some circumstances. A. suitable B. unnecessary C. appropriate D. impolite Question 9: No _______ water polo player except _______ goalie can hold the ball with both hands. A. a / the B. the / Ø C. the / a D. Ø / the

Question 10: The more expensive the car is, the ___________________it is. A. Less buyers B. more comfortable C. more quickly D. less economical

Question 11: John was the youngest boy ___. A. that was joined the club B. to be admitted to the club C. admitted to the club D. joining the club Question 12: The X-ray____________ in 1895. A. is said to have been discovered B. is said to be discovered C. said to have been discovered D. said to discover Question 13: It is of great importance to create a good impression _______ your interviewer. A. on B. about C. for D. at

Question 14: Swimming produces both_______________and physical benefits. A. psychology B. psychological C. psychologically D. psychologist

Question 15: There should be an international law against _____. A. reforestation B. afforestation C. forestry D. deforestation

Question 16: Conservationists ______that experiments on animals be stopped. A. recommended B. banned C. said D. complained Question 17: It‟s nice I am now in London again. This is the second time I ______ there. A. have been B. will be C.would be D. was Question 18:At the end of this month, scientists at the institute will conduct their AIDS research, the results of __________will be published within 6 months. A. which B. whom C. that D. it Question 19: I can‟t ______________up with your bad behavior any more. A. put B. stand in for C. sit out D. stand up Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20:– Max: “How lovely your pets are!” - Min: “ _________” A. Thank you, it's nice of you to say so B. Really? They are

C. can you say that again D. I love them, too Question 21:- “Oh, I‟m really sorry!”. - “____________________”. A.It was a pleasure. B. That„s all right. C.Thanks D.Yes, why? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Many plant and animal species will be in danger if we don't take any actions to protect them.

A. on purpose B. at ease C. at stake D. in advance Question 23:People of diverse backgrounds now go to different places for pleasure, business or education A. distinctive B. different C. isolated D. distant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24:1. We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being. A. lively B. frequented C. accessible D. revealed Question 25:3. There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble. A. adequate B. unsatisfactory C. abundant D. dominant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26:When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.

A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. B. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. D. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate.

Question 27:But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family business. A. Richard‟s father didn‟t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement. B. Richard didn‟t take over the family business because his father didn‟t retire. C. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early. D. His father retire early, but he still ran the family business.

Question 28:No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back. A. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately. B. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone. C. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back. D. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.

A. If he takes his father‟s advice, he will not be out of work. B. If he had taken his father‟s advice, he would not be out of work. C. If he had taken his father‟s advice, he would not have been out of work. D. If he took his father‟s advice, he would not be out of work.

Question 30: John is studying hard. He doesn't want to fail the next exam. A. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam. B. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam C. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam. D. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

THE HISTORY OF WRITING The development of writing (31) ___ a huge difference to the world and might see it as the beginning of the media. Pieces of pottery with marks on that are probably numbers have been discovered in China that date from around 4000 BC. Hieroglyphics and other forms of "picture writing" developed in the (32)_____ around Mesopotamia (modern-day Iraq), where the ancient Sumerian civilization was based, from around 3300 BC onwards. However, the first true alphabet was used by the Phoenicians around 1050 BC. Their alphabet had 22 letters and it is estimated that it lasted for 1000 years. The first two signs were called "aleph" and "beth", which in Greek became "alpha" and "beta", which gave us the modern word "alphabet" The modern European alphabet is based on the Greek and (33) ____ to other European countries under the Romans. A number of changes took place as time passed. The Romans added the letter G, and the letter J and V were (34) ____ to people in Shakespeare's time. If we (35) ____the history of punctuation, we also find some interesting facts. Question 31. A. did B. had C. made D. took Question 32. A. distance B. area C. length D. earth Question 33. A. spread B. appeared C. was D. occurred Question 34. A. infamous B. unpopular C. unknown D. hidden Question 35. A. look into B. bring on C. make off D. hold up

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart was born in 1756 in Austria. He would become one of the most talented composers to ever live. He started to write and play music before he was even eight years old. As a three-year-old, Mozart already loved music. He would listen to his father teach his older sister. She was learning to play the piano. Mozart looked up to his sister, and copied her playing. Mozart‟s father noticed Mozart‟s talent in music. He began to teach his son. Mozart was a fast learner. Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs. Before long, Mozart wrote hís own musical composition at the age of five. He knew how to read and write music before he could read or write words! His first piece was very short. Soon, Mozart‟s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe. Mozart played music in the cities. He played for nobles and royalty. Many times he played music with his sister. During the tour, Mozart met some musicians and learned from them. One of the musicians was Johann Christian Bach, the youngest son of Johann Sebastian Bach. When he was eight years old, Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra. Before long, he finished writing his first symphony. Mozart died on December 5, 1791. He was only 35 years old, but he composed more than 600 musical pieces. More than 200 years later, Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever. 36. When did Mozart start to write and play music? A. before he was five years old B. before he was eight years old C. when he was 10 years old D. when he was 35 years old 37. The passage descibes the early years of Mozart‟s life. Which of the following events happened first? A. Mozart wrote his first own musical compositionB. Mozart started writing music for the full orchestra C. Mozart toured all the major musical centers in Western EuropeD. Mozart listened to his father teach his sister how to play music 38. Mozart was a very gifted child. What evidence from the passage supports this conclusion? A. Before he was even five years old, Mozart could play full songs B. While touring different cities throughout Europe Mozart played for nobles and royalty. C. Mozart was only 35 years old when he died D. Mozart is still known as one of the greatest composers ever 39. Who taught Mozart how to play music? A. Johann Christian Bach B. Johann Sebastian Bach C. his father D. his sister 40.The word “composed” in the passage is the closest in meaning to_________. A. played B. taught C. purchased D. wrote 41. Where would the passage most likely be found? A. in a novel about MozartB. in a book of poetry about classical musicians C. in a book of biographies of classical musiciansD. in a newspaper article from 1791 42. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Mozart composed more than 600 musical pieces during his life. B. Mozart was a very talented child and grew up to become one of the greatest composers C. Mozart‟s father and the family toured all the major musical centers in Western Europe D. Mozart‟s father taught both Mozart and his sister how to play music. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Some companies seem to have a knack for revolutionizing any market that they enter. They produceinnovative new products that sell in huge numbers, change people‟s expectations, and become world famous. In the movie world, for example, you may know Pixar and Dreamworks. Online, you are probably familiar with Google and Facebook. In the computer world, there is one name that instantly comes to mind. That company is Apple. The beginning of Apple is a legendary story. In 1976, twenty-one year old Steve Jobs started the company from his family home in California. He worked with computer scientist Steve Wozniak, and businessman Ronald Wayne, to develop, build, and market a personal computer, their first product. These first

computers were not very slick or professional, but they were definitely innovative. The Apple I was the first low-cost computer system to have built-in video capabilities, This means it was able to display its output on a TV screen. Following the success of Apple I, Apple launched a second computer in 1977. This model came with its own monitor and keyboard and was called the Apple II. This new model‟s main selling point was that it could display information in color, another first for low-cost computer system. The popularity of the Apple II increased when it was chosen as the platform for the first spreadsheet program, called VisiCalc. This made the Apply II popular with business users as well. Apple‟s next innovative success came in January 1984 when it released the Apple Macintosh. It was the first commercially successful computer to feature a mouse and a graphical user interface (GUI). Before the Macintosh, computer users operated their computer by typing instructions on a keyboard. Now they could operate their computer by pointing and clicking on the GUI with a mouse. The Macintosh inspired many similar operating system, including Microsoft Windows. Visionary founder, Steve Jobs, left Apple in 1985 and the company‟s reputation for innovation seemed to leave with him. However, when Jobs returned to his old job in 1996, he quickly revitalized the company. Most people are familiar with Apple‟s success since Job‟s return. Starting in 1998 and continuing to the present day, Apple has released several new and very popular products, including the iMac (1998), the iPod (2001), the iPhone (2007), and finally the iPad (2010). All these products combined stylish good looks with a powerful, simple to use, operating system- a combination that is very popular with consumers. These days, Apple‟s reputation for innovation is second to none. 43. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that____________________ A. some people have heard of Pixar and DreamWorksB. Pixar and DreamWorks are two movie-making companies C. Pixar and DreamWorks are similar companies to AppleD. many people have heard of Pixar and DreamWorks 44. Why does the writer mention Pixar and DreamWorks, Google, and Facebook in paragraph 1? A. They are very popular with kids and teenagers.B. They are examples of innovation and success. C. They are related to computer systemsD. Apple developed the four companies. 45. According to the passage, which of the following words best describes Apple‟s first computer ? A. slick B. professional C. innovative D. legendary 46. What did Apple launch in 1977 ? A. Apple I B. a new TV screen C. Apple II D. Apple Macintosh 47. What was special about Apple‟s Macintosh ? A. It was the first computer to have built-in videoB. It was the first computer with a monitor and keyboard C.It could display its output on a TV screenD. It had a mouse and a graphical user interface. 48. Which sentence about Apple is true ? A. Steve Wozniak is now in charge of the companyB. It created the first spreadsheet program called VisiCalc C. It released the iPad before the iMacD. Apple was first started in Steve Job‟s home. 49. Which sentence about Apple is NOT true ? A. The Apple Macintosh „s GUI inspired Microsoft WindowsB. Steve Jobs left the company but later returned C. It has reputation for innovationD. It created Google and Facebook 50. What can be the best title for the passage ? A. The Sweetest Apple B. Apple- The Most Innovative C. Computers in Shape of Apple D. Apple to Change the World

________THE END_________

ĐỀ SỐ 4

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. shifts B. thinks C. soups D. joins 2. A. proved B. surveyed C. discussed D. rained Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. confine B. maintain C. oblige D. certain 4. A. diversity B. traditional C. attractiveness D. generation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 5. (A) While I (B) drove home, I (C) turned on the radio and (D) heard the news about the accident. 6. No one (A) came to see (B) us since we (C) bought these (D) bloodhounds. 7. At 9:00 p.m. last Friday, my boss (A) called me and (B) told me I (C) have to go into the office (D) the next day. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 8. My mother takes the responsibility for running the household. A. moving quickly C. making the house run C. going D. managing 9. If you are walking across the school yard and see your teacher approaching you, a small friendly wave is appropriate. A. greeting B. waving at C. coming near D. following Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following. 10. For a big party like this, you should wear formal clothes like a suit and tie, not jeans and pullover. A. casual smart B. casual C. long D. warm 11. Don‟t be so nervous! Try to answer the questions clearly. A. worried B. quiet C. calm D. stressful Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 12 – “Can you give my regards to your family?”_” ……………………………..” A. My parents will be happy B. By all means C. Thank you, I will D. Not at all 13. Hung: ……………………………………………………….. Hoa : Thanks. I‟m glad you like it. My sister gave it to me yesterday. A. What a fashionable dress you are wearing! B. Oh, I like your fashionable dress.

C. I think you have a fashionable dress. D. Your fashionable dress must be expensive.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 14. I am a _______ student this year. A. twelve-grade B. twelve‟s-grade C. twelfth-grade D. twelfths-grade 15. My younger brother is rather _______, but he is always obedient and hard-working. A. mischievous B. caring C. helpful D. generous 16. The change of the plan is strange, but I don‟t think it‟s _______. A. significance B. significant C. significantly D. signifies 17. It‟s not easy to change people‟s _______ toward a certain problem. A. attitude B. idea C. opinion D. thinking 18. Non-verbal _______ such as waving, nodding or shaking of the head also have cultural meanings. A. signs B. hints C. marks D. signals 19. Then, he _______ something that his boss _______ some time before. A. remembered/ had said B. had remembered/said C. remembered/ was saying D. was remembering/ said 20. In my family, all of us must share household _______. A. appliances B. duties C. chorus D. chores 21. When the teacher wants to get your attention, he/she can _______ at you. A. show B. wave C. point D. nod 22. We always believe that love always _______ marriage because if we have love, we will have a happy marriage. A. goes after B. goes by C. follows D. precedes 23. Lan: When does the luncheon take place? Hoa: It ………………… in the dining room right now. A. serves B. served C. is serving D. is being served 24. In ………….. or elementary grades, students may spend all the day with one teacher.

A. main B. chief C. primary D. secondary 25. ………………… school helps children develop their intellectual and physical skills and learn to get along with others. A. Nurse B. Nurses C. Nursing D. Nursery 26. If you …………..to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now. A. listen B. listened C. will listen D. had listened Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 27. I have never played golf before. A. This is the first time I have ever played golf. B. I used to played golf but I gave it up already. C. It‟s the last time I played golf. D. It‟s the first time I had played golf. 28. “ What made you change your mind?” Joe asked. A. Joe asked what made me change my mind B. Joe wanted to know what had changed my mind. C. Joe asked what had made me change my mind. D. Joe asked what changed my mind. 29. We have planned to leave for Hanoi tomorrow. A. We will leave for Hanoi tomorrow. B. We are leaving for Hanoi tomorrow. C. We will be going for Hanoi tomorrow. D. We will have left for Hanoi tomorrow. 30. The last time he went swimming was three years ago. A. I swam a lot when we were three years ago. B. I hadn‟t been swimming before three years ago. C. I went swimming for three years. D. I haven‟t been swimming for three years. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Studying abroad and studying in your own country both have definite (31)_____ for a student. Living in another country can be an exciting experience (32)_____ everything seems new and different. The challenge of living in a new environment can give you courage and self confidence, (33)______ . if you want to learn (34)_____ language, living abroad is a great way to do that because you can read magazines or newspapers, watch television programs, or make friends with people who are (35)______ … 31. A. disadvantages B. drawbacks C. benefits D. profits 32. A. because B. that C. but D. so 33. A. either B. however C. even D. too 34. A. other B. others C. another D. one another 35. A. mother tongue B. native speakers C. foreigners D. English-speaking Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Our eyes and ears might be called transformers because they sense the light and sound around us and turn them into electrical impulses that the brain can interpret. These electrical impulses that have been transformed by the eye and ears reach the brain and are turned into messages that we can interpret. For the eye, the process begins as the eye admits light waves, bends them at the cornea and lens, and then focuses them on the retina. At the back of each eye, nerve fibers bundle together to form optic nerves, which join and then split into two optic tracts. Some of the fibers cross, so that part of the input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, and vice versa. The process in the ear is carried out through sensory cells that are carried in fluid-filled canals and that are extremely sensitive to vibration. Sound that is transformed into electricity travels along nerve fibers in the auditory nerve. These fibers form a synapse with neurons that carry the messages to the auditory cortex on each side of the brain. 36. According to the author, we might call our eyes and ears “transformers” because: A. They sense light and sound. B. They create electrical impulses C. The brain can interpret the input. D. The messages travel in the brain. 37. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “admits”? A. selects B. interprets C. lets in D. focuses on 38. The word “bundle” could be best replaced by which of the following: A. group B. grow C. branch D. settle 39. The word “split” could be best replaced by which of the following: A. tear B. fracture C. separate D. crack 40. According to the passage, when input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the brain, what happens? A. The nerve fibers bundle together. B. The optic nerves split. C. The retina receives light waves. D. Input from the left field goes to the right side. 41. The phrase “carried out” could be best replaced by which of the following: A. brought over B. taken away C. accomplished D. maintained 42. According to the passage, optic nerves eventually:

A. split B. bend C. admit light wave D. become messages Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. The most common causes of tsunamis are underwater earthquakes. To understand underwater earthquakes, you must first understand plate tectonics. The theory of plate tectonics suggests that the lithosphere, or top layer of the Earth, is made up of a series of huge plates. These plates make up the continents and seafloor. They rest on an underlying viscous layer called the asthenosphere. Think of pie cut into eight slices. The pie crust would be the lithosphere and the hot, sticky pie filling underneath would be the asthenosphere. On the earth, these plates are constantly in motion, moving along each other at a speed of 1 to 2 inches (2.5-5 cm) per year. The movement occurs most dramatically along fault lines (where the pie is cut). These motions are capable of producing earthquakes and volcanism, which, when they occur at the bottom of the ocean, are two possible sources of tsunamis. When two plates come into contact at a region known as a plate boundary, a heavier plate can slip under a lighter one. This is called subduction. Underwater subduction often leaves enormous “handprints” in the form of deep ocean trenches along the seafloor. In some cases of subduction, part of the seafloor connected to the lighter plate may “snap up” suddenly due to pressure from the sinking plate. This results in an earthquake. The focus of the earthquake is the point within the Earth where the rupture first occurs, rock break and the first seismic waves are generated. The epicenter is the point on the seafloor directly above the focus. When this piece of the plate snaps up and sends tons of rock shooting upward with tremendous force, the energy of that force is transferred to the water. The energy pushes the water upward above normal sea level. This is birth of a tsunami. The earthquake that generated the December 26, 2004 tsunami in the Indian Ocean was a 9.0 on the Richter scale- one of the biggest in recorded history. 43. Which of the following best states the topic of this text? A. The birth of a tsunami B. The magnitude of tsunamis C. Tsunamis in the Indian Ocean D. Series of huge plate on earth 44. According to the first paragraph, continents and seafloor are part of _____________. A. lithosphere B. asthenosphere C. plate tectonics D. huge plates 45. The word “which” in the passage refers to _____________. A. these motions B. earthquakes and volcanism C. fault lines D. tsunamis 46. It can be inferred from the passage that the earthquake will never occur when _____________ A. the subduction is evidenced. B. seismic waves are generated. C. no fault line of plate tectonics happens. D. heavier plates and lighter ones break up. 47. The place within the Earth where the first rupture occurs is called _____________. A. the epicenter B. the vocal C. the focus D. the center 48. The word “tremendous” in the passage is CLOSEST in meaning to _____________. A. remarkable B. huge C. challenging D. explosive 49. Which of the following natural disasters happening in Indonesia (in the Indian Ocean) is related to the fault movement of plate tectonics? A. Volcanic eruptions B. Soil erosion C. Forest fires D. Floods 50. The following is mentioned in the text about tsunamis, EXCEPT that they are _____________ A. predictable following any incidence of earthquakes. B. close to the rise of sea levels from the sinking plate. C. connected to deep ocean trenches along sea floors. D. related to strong movements of plate tectonics. ___________________________-- THE END--________________________________ ANSWERS:

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. B

11.C 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.A 18.D 19.A 20.D

21.C 22.D 23.C 24.C 25.D 26.D 27.A 28.C 29.B 30.D

31.C 32.A 33.D 34.C 35.B 36.B 37.C 38.A 39.C 40.D

41.C 42.A 43.A 44.A 45.B 46.C 47.C 48.B 49.A 50.A

ĐỀ SỐ 5 I. Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

1: A. eventually B. capacity C. altogether D. particular 2: A. appearance B. ambitious C. performance D. telephone II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest. 3. A. boots B. books C. stops D. learns 4. A. student B. supportive C. curriculum D. tutor III. Choose the underlined word/ phrase that needs correcting 5. Foreign students who are doing (A) a decision about which (B) school to attend (C) may not know exactly where the choices (D) are located. 6. Could (A) you mind telling me ( B ) the way to ( C) the nearest (D) post office? 7. The children were playing(A) last night outdoors (B) when it began (C) to rain very hard (D). IV. Choose the word which best fits each gap of the sentence 8. The success of the party was mainly due to the presence of several_______ . A. celebrations B. celebrated C. celebrities D. celebrates 9. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty _______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso. A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. worthy 10. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very_______. A. open – minded B. kind – hearted C. narrow- minded D. absent – minded 11. Communities in remote areas are extremely________ to famine if crops fail. A. defenseless B. helpless C. disappointed D. vulnerable 12. I could hear voices but I couldn‟t ________what they were saying. A. turn up B. bring about C. make out D. try out 13. John is intelligent but he ............common sense. A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants 14. His sister's marriage has been arranged by her family. She is marrying a man ............. A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know C. she hardly knows D. that she hardly know 15. Instead of ............about the good news, Peter seemed to be indifferent. A. exciting B. being excited C. to excite D. to be excited 16. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ............. A. another B. other C. the another D. the other 17. Tony never comes to class on time and ........... A. neither does Pedro B. so does Pedro C. so doesn‟t Pedro D. neither doesn‟t Pedro 18. David painted the room black. It looks dark and dreary. He ............chosen a different color. A. had to B. should have C. must have D. could have been 19. In most_______ developed countries, up to 50% of_______ population enters higher education at some time in their lives.

A. the/ B. / C. the/ a D. /the V. Choose the word / phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined one in this sentence. 20. Catherine rejected many suitable men before settling on Tom. A. said no to B. accepted C. met D. saw 21. Those companies were closed due to some seriously financial problems. A. taken off B. put away C. wiped out D. gone over V. Choose the word / phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined one in this sentence. 22. Adding a garage will enhance the value of the house. A. stabilize B. alter C. diminish D. increase 23. It‟s extremely rude not to say “Thank you” when you are given something. A. polite B. casual C. careless D. embarrassing VI. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D which has the same meaning with the original sentence. 24. Be he rich or poor, she will many him. A. She doesn‟t want to marry him because he is poor. C. She wants to marry him if he is rich. B. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor. D. She will marry him however poor he may be. 25. When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words. A. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say. B. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say. C. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything. D. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say. 26. It‟s a pity that you didn‟t tell us about this. A. I wish you had told us about this C. I wish you have told us about this. B. I wish you told us about this D. I wish you would tell us about this. 27. My brother and I went to that school. A. I went to that school and my brother, too. C. I went to that school and so my brother did. B. I went to that school and so did my brother. D. I went to that school and so my brother did, too.

28. Wealthy as they were, they were far from happy. A. They were as wealthy as they were happy. B. They were not happy as they were wealthy. C. Even if they were wealthy, they were not unhappy. D. Although they were wealthy, they were not happy. VII. Choose the correct response to this situation. 29. Tom. "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary. “_______”. A. Great B. Oh, that's annoying C. Well, never mind D. Sounds like fun 30. “ You have a good voice! You sang so beautifully!” - “..................................................” A. Your compliment isn‟t corrects B. Your compliment is encouraging. C. Don‟t joke me D. Better than you are thinking VIII. Read the passages and choose the word/ phrase that best fits each of the blanks. Many people travel to New Zealand to learn about the Maori culture. The Maori were the (31)…………inhabitants of New Zealand, arriving on the island around 1,000 to 1,500 years ago. Probably the best known aspects of Maori culture is the haka, the Maori war dance. The main reason (32)…………..this is that the New Zealand rugby team still dances this haka before all of their games. This, in addition (33)………..the fact that their rugby team is very good, has (34)………. New Zealand‟s rugby team one of the most famous teams in rugby. The intention of the haka is to intimidate the enemy. The dance seeks to intimidate people through stomping, loud shouts, and frightening facial (35)………… Perhaps the most intimidating part of the haka is that it is done in perfect unison by all members. 31. A. origin B. original C. originate D. originally 32. A. for B. of C. by D. about 33. A. with B. to C. of D. at 34. A. got B. taken C. made D. done 35. A. express B. expressive C. expressively D. expressions IX. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 36- 42. The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the District of Columbia held a meeting in 1792 and decided to hold a contest for the best design for the Presidential House. James Hoban, an architect born in 1reland, was the winner. His bid for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the final cost of the building came to twice that amount. The work on the project began during the same year, and the grounds of approximately one and a half miles west of the Capitol Hill were chosen by Major Pierre-Charles L. Enfant, who was in charge of city planning. However, the construction continued for several more years, and George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail moved in 1800, only six rooms had been completed. The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the color of the paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and James Hoban reconstructed the house for President James Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north portico was added to the building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the building was so dilapidated that it was beyond repair and suggested that it was cheaper to construct a new one than repair the existing dwelling. However, the national sentiment was to keep the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5.4 million dollars for repairs. In 1961, Jacqueline Kennedy launched a program to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine Arts Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors. The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters contain 107 rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor's suite, a dentist's office, a large solarium, a broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which the president works is not located in the White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The White House stands on 16 acres of park-land and overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood groves. 36. The word “contest” is closest in meaning to A. hearing B. tournament C. competition D. computation 37. What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction? A. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners. B. It did not adhere to the original estimate. C. It was not included in the architectural design. D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home. 38. The word "grounds" is closest in meaning to A. high ground B. several lots C. hills D. site 39. It can be inferred from the passage that A. George Washington often used the White House steps B. George Washington contributed to the White House design C. George Washington never lived in the White House D. The White House was excluded from the city planning 40. The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House building continued A. up to 1800 B. after 1800 C. until 1814 D. until 1792

41. The word "dilapidated" is closest in meaning to A. ornate B. run-down C. old-fashioned D. obscure 42. What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second paragraph? A. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century. B. The building was modernized extensively during one decade. C. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century. D. Each president added new features to the building's conveniences. X. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct answer to each of the questions from 43- 50. Today‟s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have already been developed than run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-emission option presently available. Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighbourhood cars, electronic delivery vans, bikes and trolleys. As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as common as today‟s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centres might be reserved for electric cars. Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighbourhood vehicles all meeting at transit centres that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by freeway today. 43. The author‟s purpose in the passage is to........... A. criticize conventional vehicles B. support the invention of electric cars C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future 44. The passage would most likely be followed by details about........... A. the neighbourhood of the fixture C. electric shuttle buses B. automated freeways D. pollution restrictions in the future 45. The word „compact‟ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to........... A. squared B. long-range C. inexpensive D. concentrated 46. In the second paragraph, the author implies that.......... A. everyday life will stay much the same in the future. B. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation C. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed. D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future 47. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be ........... A. much larger than they are today C. common as today‟s gas stations B. more convenient than they are today D. equipped with charging devices 48. The word „charging‟ in this passage refers to........... A. aggression B. lightning C. electricity D. credit cards 49. The word „commuters‟ in paragraph 4 refers to............ A. visitors B. cab drivers C. shoppers D. daily travelers 50. The word „hybrid' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to............ A. hazardous B. futuristic C. automated D. combination

ĐỀ SỐ 6 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. broad B. load C. road D. boat 2. A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. accuracy B. Canada C. banana D. countryside 4. A. contaminate B. continent C. conquer D. comfortable Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 5.Never having flied(A) before, Mark wasvery (B) excited as (C) he drove to the (D)airport. 6. If classes had finished (A) sooner(B), I would go(C) to Canada last month(D). 7. The (A) law of that countryforbids anyone (B)under (C)eighteen driving(D)a car. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 8.Although he was completely ________, he produced the most beautiful table. A. unable B. incapable C. uneducated D. untrained 9. It is doubtful whether newspapers……………. governments to any great degree. A. draw B. influence C. catch D. attract 10. Many companies……………. to take part in illegal logging. A. denied B. rejected C. protested D. refused 11. The music……………..the composer‟s joy of life A. arouses B. appeals C. expresses D. attracts 12. By the 1300s, the Spanish had learnt that gunpowder could____ propel an object with incredible force. A. using it to B. used to C. be used to D. been used to 13. Rodney____ for the company for very long before he was promoted. A. hadn’t been working B. hasn‟t been working C. didn‟t used to work D. didn‟t work. 14. “Do you think Harry will want something to eat after he gets here?” “I hope not. It‟ll probably be after midnight, and we____.” A. be sleeping B. are sleeping C. will be sleeping D. have been sleeping 15. Mr. Lee was upset by____ him the truth. A. us not tell B. we didn‟t tell C. not to tell D. our not having told. 16. ____ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would have helped win the project. A. Had it been B. Hadn‟t it been C. If it hadn’t been D. If it had been 17. I didn‟t see anyone but I felt as though I____. A. am watched B. have been watched C. was being watched D. be watched 18. Let‟s leave early, so we‟ll be ahead of the rush of commuters. We can‟t risk____ in heavy traffic during rush hour. A. to hold up B. holding up C. having held up D. being held up 19. He _____ a big fortune when he was young, so he didn‟t have to work hard. A. came into B. came up C. came across D. came round Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. 20. -A: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” - B: “_______” A.Sorry,the seat is taken B. Yes, I am so glad C. No, thanks. D. Yes, yes. You can sit here. 21. Jane: “ _______ " – David: "Thanks. I‟ll write to you when I arrive there." A. Good luck B. Have a go C. Have a good trip D. Good bye Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 22.I will communicate with you as soon as I have any news. A. be related B. be interested in C. get in touch D. have connection 23. I couldn‟t see what she was doing. It was so dark down there. A. make out B. make up C. make for D. make from Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 24:She could not hide her dismay at the result. A. disappointment B. depression C. happiness D. pessimism 25:Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional. A. voluntary B. free C. pressure D. mandatory Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 26. They arrived too late to get good seats. A. When they arrived, the good seats were already taken. B. They got good seats some time after they arrive. C. Although they were late, they found some good seats. D. They had to stand for the whole show. 27. He started to play the guitar five years ago. A. He has been playing the guitar since five years. B. he has been playing the guitar for five years. C. He has been starting to play the guitar for five years.

D. He has started playing the guitar for 5 years. 28. The switch was too high for him to reach. A. He wasn‟t tall enough for reaching the switch. B. He wasn’t tall enough to reach the switch. C. He wasn‟t enough tall to reach the switch. D. He wasn‟t so tall that he can reach the switch. 29. It‟s possible to cross the road because of the traffic. A. The traffic makes people be impossible to cross the road. B. The traffic makes everyone be impossible to cross the road. C. The traffic makes it be impossible to cross the road. D. The traffic makes it impossible to cross the road. 30. I would prefer you not to smoke in here. A. I‟d rather you shouldn‟t some in here. B. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in here. C. I‟d rather you not to smoke in here. D. I‟d rather you don‟t smoke in here. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Health is something we tend to (31) …………..when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly (32)…………..of it. But illness can come, even when we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (33) …………… to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago, however, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (34) …………..of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world became much safer for children. Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (35) ……………. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today. 31. A. forget B. ignore C. give up D. throw away 32. A. awake B. keen C. aware D. concerned 33. A. how B. what C. which D. when 34. A. reason B. origin C. source D. cause 35. A. speed up B. advance C. accelerate D. run

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees‟ homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn‟t telecommuting become more popular? Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager‟s responsibilities. It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office. 36. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? A. The advantages of telecommuting. B. A definition of telecommuting. C. An overview of telecommuting. D. The failure of telecommuting. 37. The phrase “of no consequence” means____. A. of no use B. of no good C. unimportant D. irrelevant 38. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT____. A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision. C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home. 39. The word “executives“ in line 10 refers to____. A. telecommuters B. managers C. employees D. most people 40. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees____. A. need regular interaction with their families. B.are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office. C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office. D. are ignorant of telecommuting. 41. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is____. A. a telecommuter B. the manager C. a statistician D. a reporter 42. When Business Week published “ The Portable Executive “, it implied that A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.

B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting. C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic. D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider. Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank themin order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields in concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission. Don‟t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one. 43. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____. A. emphasize that each person‟s answers will be different. B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process. C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D.indicate that each person’s answers may change over time. 44. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____. A. questions B. answers C. features D.jobs 45. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by____. A. discovering B.considering C. measuring D. disposing 46. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city? A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising 47. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that____. A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B.insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career. C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion. D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career. 48. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that____. A.you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling. C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future. 49. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4? A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber. B.To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception. C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen. D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant. 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true? A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary. B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs. C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant D.Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.

ĐỀ SỐ 7 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. allowed B. passed C. argued D. raised

Question 2: A. machine B. watching C. kitchen D. matches

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. confidence B. suitable C. responsible D. secondary

Question 4: A. verbal B. polite C. common D. social Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: A large number of Indian men agrees that it is unwise to confide in their wives.

A B C D Question 6: Chemistry has become one of the most important factor in the textile industry.

A B C D Question 7: Unless you don‟t study hard, you won‟t pass the GCSE examination.

A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: In the last hundred years, traveling _______ much easier and more comfortable.

A. becomes B. has become C. became D. will become Question 9: Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but _____ primary cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.

A. a / the B. Ø / a C. the / a D. Ø / Ø Question 10: This factory produced______ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.

A. as twice as many B. twice as many as C. twice as many D. as twice many

Question 11: Jason asked me _______ me the book the day before. A. if who gave B. if who has given C. that who had given D. who had given

Question 12: The prisoner is thought _____ by climbing over the wall. A. to escape B. to escape C. had escaped D. to have escaped

Question 13: Many modern medicines are derived _______ plants and animals. A. on B. from C. for D. in

Question 14: The success of the 22nd SEA Games had a great contribution of many _______ volunteers.

A. support B. supporter C. supportive D. supportively Question 15: Someone who is _______ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular.

A. powerful B. optimistic C. stagnant D. pessimistic Question 16: According to a recent survey, most people are on good ________ with their neighbors.

A. relations B. acquaintance C. relationships D. terms Question 17: Most of the computers in the laboratory are ________ now.

A. out of order B. out of work C. out of working D. out of function Question 18: Leila ________ the information she wanted in her reference books.

A. took up B. looked after C. took out D. looked up Question 19: I decided that I couldn‟t put ____ their thoughtless behavior any longer.

A. up with B. up C. off D. through to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: - “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - “________________.”

A. You are telling a lie B. I don‟t like your sayings C. Thank you for your compliment D. Thank you very much. I am afraid

Question 21: “Oh, I‟m really sorry!” - “______________” A. Thanks B. It was a pleasure C. That‟s all right D. Yes, why? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. depended B. required C. divided D. paid Question 23: That matter is so confidential that it must not be discussed outside the office. A. secret B. important C. interesting D. alarming Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.

A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant. Question 25: I didn't think his comments were very appropriate at the time.

A. exact B. right C. correct D. unsuitable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high.

A. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. D. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime.

Question 27: "It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom." said our manager.

A. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike. B. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom. C. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike. D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike.

Question 28: Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.

E. Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke on the phone last night. F. Mr. Smith, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night. G. Mr. Smith, who I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan. H. Mr. Smith, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot.

E. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot. F. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot. G. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot. H. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot.

Question 30: You‟d better take the keys. It‟s possible I‟ll come home late. E. You‟d better take the keys as I possibly come home late. F. I‟ll probably come home late so that you‟d better take the keys. G. If I come home late, you‟d better take the keys. H. You‟d better take the keys in case I come home late

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

In Italy, people and personal relationships are more important than time and schedules, which are flexible. People may be late for an appointment, although they are more (31) ____ in the north of the country than in the south. To north Europeans their way of working may seem disorganized and (32) ____. In meetings they don't feel they have to follow the agenda or speak only in turn. They interrupt (33) ____ a lot and often talk at the same time. They are excellent communicators and are very expressive in their use of body language. Appearance and good manners are important, so you should dress well and (34)____ polite, but you don't have to be formal. Food is a very important part of life, and is very good, so remember to compliment them (35)____ their cuisine.

Question 31: A. on time B. punctually C. punctual D. in time

Question 32: A. inefficient B. efficiency C. efficiently D. inefficiently

Question 33: A. another one B. each other C. yourselves D. themselves

Question 34: A. do B. speak C. be D. talk

Question 35: A. on B. at C. for D. with Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

A massage is relaxing, and makes you feel great, but did you know that it's also good for you? That's what doctors are now saying. Massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and speeds up recovery from medical problems.

Research has shown that people of all ages benefit from touch. Premature infants who are held develop faster than those left alone, and healthy babies who get a lot of physical contact cry less and sleep better. Researchers are not sure why this occurs but they have also found out that touch can slow heart rate, lower blood pressure and increase levels of serotonin, the brain chemical that is linked to well-being. It also decreases levels of the stress hormone cortisol, and this in turn increases your resistance to illness.

Massage also speeds up healing. Bone-marrow transplant patients who were given massages had better neurological function than those who weren't. Furthermore, massage reduced pain by 37% in patients with chronic muscle aches.

Giving someone a massage may be as good as getting one. A study conducted by the University of Miami found that mothers suffering from depression felt better after massaging their infants. In that same study, elderly volunteers who massaged infants reported feeling less anxious and depressed.

It even works when you do it yourself; 43% of headache sufferers reported getting relief after massaging their temples and neck and smokers who were taught self-massage while trying to quit felt less anxiety and smoked less. Question 36: What has recently been said about getting a massage?

A. It relaxes you. B. It makes you feel good. C. It improves your physical condition. D. It requires a special technique.

Question 37: Babies born before their time ..... A. cry less and sleep better if they are massaged. B. grow faster if they are held. C. develop faster than healthy babies if they get a lot of physical contact. D. don't survive if they are not held.

Question 38: The author suggests that touch .... A. increases levels of the stress hormone cortisol. B. makes your heart beat faster. C. increases the feeling of well-being. D. helps you deal with your feelings.

Question 39: Patients who get massages .... A. don't experience muscle pain. B. avoid having surgery. C. make a quicker recovery. D. are not better off than those who do not.

Question 40: According to the article.... A. massage has no effect on smokers. B. massage relieves headaches by 43%. C. smokers who gave others massages felt less anxious and smoked less. D. massaging yourself is as effective as being massaged.

Question 41: What did the study conducted in Miami show? A. Elderly volunteers who got massages felt less anxious. B. Mothers were depressed after massaging their babies. C. Babies who got massages felt better. D. Giving a massage is as beneficial as getting one.

Question 42: What is NOT true according to the article? A. Mothers will suffer from depression if they don't massage their babies. B. People can learn to massage themselves. C. Massage is good for you regardless of whether you're giving or getting one. D. It helps smokers quit smoking.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

If we took a look at how people in Europe communicated just one hundred years ago, we would be very surprised to find out that English was hardly used outside the United Kingdom. The language most commonly used between people of different nationalities, and particularly the aristocracy, was French. In fact, French was the language of diplomacy, culture and education. However, that is not the case nowadays. English has replaced French as the international language of communication. Today there are more people who speak English as a second language than people who speak it as a first language.

There are many reasons why English has become the language of international communication. Britain's colonization of many parts of the world had something to do with it, but it is mainly due to America's rise to the position of major world power. This helped spread popular American culture throughout the world bringing the language with it. But is it good that English has spread to all parts of the world so quickly? Language specialists seem to be divided over this issue. There are those who claim that it is important to have a language that the people in our increasingly globalized world have in common. According to others, English is associated with a particular culture and therefore promotes that culture at the expense of others. Linguists have suggested "Esperanto", an artificially put-together language, as a solution to international communication problems but without success. So, English will continue being the world language until some other language, maybe Chinese, which is the most widely-spoken native language in the world, takes over as the world's international language instead of English. Question 43: According to the passage, a century ago....

A. educated people throughout Europe spoke English. B. foreign travelers to England spoke only French. C. French was much more popular than English. D. only the French aristocracy could speak English.

Question 44: What is chiefly responsible for the growth in popularity of English? A. Britain's becoming an international power. B. The French losing many colonies. C. America's becoming powerful. D. The development of American culture.

Question 45: What is meant by "the language of diplomacy" (lines 4)? A. The language used by ordinary people. B. The language used by the English and the French. C. The language used by the aristocracy. D. The language used by governments.

Question 46: What is true according to the passage? A. The experts don't like Esperanto. B. Esperanto is difficult to learn. C. Esperanto is not a natural language D. Esperanto is becoming more and more popular.

Question 47: The experts' opinion on the spread of English is ..... A. split B. positive C. negative D. undecided

Question 48: The author believes that..... A. English is easier to learn than Chinese. B. English will probably be replaced as an international language. C. Chinese is going to be the next language of international communication. D. Chinese is growing in popularity among non-native speakers.

Question 49: These days...... A. French is the language of diplomacy. B. more non-natives speak English than natives. C. more people speak French than English. D. French is a dying language.

Question 50: What would be a good title for this passage? A. English; Past, Present and Future B. English as an international Language C. English language means English culture D. English: a difficult language to learn

________THE END_________ Key:

1 B 11 D 21 C 31 C 41 D

2 A 12 D 22 B 32 A 42 A

3 C 13 B 23 A 33 B 43 C

4 B 14 C 24 C 34 C 44 C

5 C 15 B 25 D 35 A 45 D

6 C 16 D 26 A 36 C 46 C

7 A 17 A 27 C 37 B 47 A

8 B 18 D 28 D 38 C 48 B

9 A 19 A 29 A 39 C 49 B

10 C 20 C 30 D 40 D 50 B

ĐỀ SỐ 8 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. danger B. landscape C. hand D. nature Question 2: A. explosion B. exploration C. expertise D. expedition Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. acquaintance B. unselfish C. attractionD. humorous Question 4: A. managerial B. determination C. unbelievable D. inability Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: If you _____ less last night, you _____ so bad today.

A. had drunk – would not have felt

B. drank – would not feel

C. had drunk – would not feel

D. would have drunk – would not feel

Question 6: Son, along with his friends, ______ on a picnic in Cuc Phuong National Park at the end of this month. A. have to go B. will goC. are going D. is going

Question 7: “_____ TV for the last four hours? Turn it off and get some exercise.” A. Did you watch B. Are you watch

C.Did you watch D. Have you been watching Question 8: In the past six month, the company has already received twice ____ in gross revenues as it earned in

the entire preceding year. A. as much B. more C. as manyD. as more Question 9: Information on events occurring in the theater ____ the year is available through our website. A. into B. throughout C. on D. as Question 10: _____ for the money management seminar will be forwarded to all the managers tomorrow.

A. Invite B. Invitations C. Inviting D. Invitation

Question 11: The conference‟s keynote speaker addressed ____ impacts of digital technology on the current music industry. A. variety B. variably C. variationD. various

Question 12: Due to subway system repairs, service on this line has been ___ until next Tuesday. A. reserved B. suspended C. collectedD. distributed Question 13: Former footballer Tito Grimaldi is ____ a commentator and analyst for the Night Football Recap. A. currently B. carefully C. purposely D. personally Question 14: Please ___ and see us some time. You‟re always welcome. A. come around B. come about C. come to D. come away Question 15: “_____ for you, I‟d never have had the courage to enter the talent show.”

B. Except B. ButC. Had it not D. Apart

Question 16: I have seen that famous actor on television, but I have never seen him ____ person. A. by B. on C. of D. in Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 17: My mother is a live wire who is always as busy as a bee. A. a person who is lively and full of energy B. a person who is good at repairing electric devices C. a person who works leisurely all the time D. a person who is busy working with wiring Question 18: After considering it, I decided I had been wrong.

A. On refection B. After discussing with my wife

C.For this time only D. For the second time Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 19: The expansion of public services has caused concern that the civil service branches are becoming autonomous powers.

A. independent B. advanced C. superiorD. powerful Question 20: All organisms must obtain nutrients from the environment in order to sustain themselves.

A. isolate B. harvestC. acquire D. digest

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 21: California has more land under irrigation than any another states. A B C D>> other Question 22: In the 1920‟s cinema became an important art form and one of the ten A B C largest industry in the United States. D>> industries Question 23: Ripe fruit is often stored in a place where contains much carbon dioxide A B C>> which so that the fruit will not decay too rapidly. D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 24 to 28. Beatrix Potter was a story writer whose books about animals have been translated into many languages and read by both children and adults. (24) ___ being an author, she was also regarded as a very successful farmer. Born in London in 1866, Beatrix was cared for at home by various servants. Every year she counted the days to her annual holiday in the countryside. She would (25)____ to her London home small animals which she observed and drew. As she grew up, she entertained other children with drawings and stories about these animals. In 1901, she printed a book at her own (26) ____called “The Tale of Peter Rabbit”. So many copies were sold that she bought a farm, where over the next eight years she wrote many other stories. They are sold very well and readers liked their detailed color drawings. With her growing, (27) ____, Beatrix started buying more farmland, animals and property. After her marriage, at the age of 47, Beatrix stopped writing, saying that she had run out of (28)____. She became a farmer and spent the rest of her life working with her sheep and awarding prizes at sheep fairs. Question 24: A. Apart B. Besides C. Otherwise D. Except Question 25: A. get B. keep C. take D. give Question 26: A. earning B. spending C. expenseD. charge Question 27: A. pay B. income C. wages D. receipt Question 28: A. views B. ideas C. opinionsD. beliefs Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question from 29 to 35 Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today. Thousands of these How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles that begin with the words “How-to”. One book may tell you how to earn money. Another may tell you how to save or spend it and another may explain how to give your money away. Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to succeed in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book “How to Turn Failure into Success”. If you would like to become very rich, you can buy the book “How to Make a Millionaire”. If you never make any money at all, you may need a book called “How to Live on Nothing”. One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want to have a better love of life, you can read “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”. If you are tired of books on happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step in instructions on how to redecorate or enlarge a house. Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex. Today people have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to books helps people deal with modern life. Question 29: What is the passage mainly about?

A. How-to books

B. How to make a millionaire

C. How to turn failure into success

D. How to succeed in love every minute

Question 30: How-to books are the ones that _________ A. give instructions on how to do things

B. offer you entertainment after a hard-working day

C. develop your imagination or creativity

D. preserve traditions and customs

Question 31: There are How-to books that give you advice about money except ____ B. how to earn more moneyB. how to invest money in business

C.how to save or spend money D. how to give money away Question 32: How-to books that give advice on careers do not deal with ____

A. succeeding in job interviewsB. choosing a career

C.success in your careers D. turning failure into success Question 33: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______

A. advice B. How-to books

C.career D. instruction Question 34: Which of the following is NOT the type of books giving information on careers?

A. “How to Turn Failure into Success”

B. “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”

C. “How to Make a Millionaire”

D. “How to Live on Nothing”

Question 35: The reasons why How-to books have become popular are all the following except ____ A. life has become so complex

B. people have far more free time to use

C. people tend to read more books

D. people have more problems to solve

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question from 36 to 43

BLUE MOON “Blue moon” is a term that is used to describe the phenomenon of a second full moon occurring in one month. How could two full moons possibly occur in a single month? It is not nature‟s fault; the natural phases of the moon do not perfectly match up with the Roman calendar. Although still used today, this calendar was devised by Julius Caesar and Augustus Caesar over 2000 years ago. While the calendar works well, the method that they used does not match the lunar cycle exactly. Thus, occasionally the moon will go through its “full” phase twice before the month changes. A “blue moon” is an uncommon event. And its rare occurrence eventually led to the usage of the phrase “once in a blue moon”. This phrase was commonly used to indicate an event that could never happen. Over time, the meaning of the phrase changed from something that would never happen, to something that seldom happens. Today, this phrase is used to indicate extremely rate events, the absurd, or things that never happen. Question 36: What is the main purpose of this passage?

A. To explain the definition and the usage of “blue moon”

B. To inform readers of the difference between the Roman calendar and the lunar

calendar.

C. To support the importance of the lunar calendar

D. To illustrate the features of the moon

Question 37: According to the passage, what does the term “blue moon” refer to? A. A moon with the colour blue

B. Cold nights causing the moon appear blue

C. The second full moon in one month

D. Events that could never happen

Question 38: The word “phase” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to ____ A. Shape B. positionC. cycle D. influence

Question 39: Why doesn‟t our calendar match the lunar cycle exactly? A. It has more days than it should

B. The lunar cycle is wrong

C. Our calendar was not designed by humans

D. Our calendar was designed by humans

Question 40: Why did people use the expression “blue moon” to mean something that would never happen? A. Because the moon will never turn blue

B. Because we use the Roman calendar

C. Because it is rare two full moons to be in one month

D. Because the lunar cycle does not match our calendar

Question 41: the word “absurd” in paragraph 3 is closets in meaning to ____ A. Normal B. ridiculous C. interesting D. frequent

Question 42: According to the passage, which is the following is NOT true? A. The meaning of the phrase “blue moon” changed over the year

B. The phrase “once in a blue moon” could refer to two people eating dinner

together

C. The roman calendar was invented by Julius and Augustus Caesar

D. The roman calendar is still in use today

Question 43: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The phrase “blue moon” refers to frequency of the events

B. The usage of “blue moon” has not changed

C. The roman calendar matches the natural phases of the moon

D. Two full moons often occur in one month.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 44. - Julie: “You look stunning in that dress, Anna. How beautiful you are!” - Anna: “ ________” A. It‟s nice of you to say so. B. Thank you.

C. Don‟t mention it. D. You‟re very kind. Question 45. - Foreigner: “__________” - Hoa: “ Go straight. It‟s on the corner of Holly and Rose. Next to the library.”

A. Can you take me to the 3D Museum? B. I know it‟s rude but where‟s the 3D Museum. C. Could you show me the way to the 3D Museum? D. Can I get to the 3D Museum by car?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46. Although engineers must make use of technology and innovations, these alone are not enough to pass engineering information. A. Technology and innovation is essential for engineers; however, there is still more in order to transmit engineering information. B. Engineering professionals advise to benefit from technology and advances so that they can pass on their engineering information. C. Whatever technology or information engineers use, transformation of the engineering information they possess can never be passed through. D. Almost all engineers have been interested in technology and advances in their fields, but they are generally bad at expressing their engineering information. Question 47. Unlike a high school education, a university education includes the application of knowledge. A. While in high schools students have the chance to apply their knowledge, in universities they don‟t. B. High school students lack the opportunity to apply their knowledge that university students have. C. High school education and university education are similar in that both include the application of knowledge. D. A university education is more useful than a high school education since it allows the students to apply knowledge. Question 48. Had I realized what you intended to do, I would have backed you up. A. Even if I had realized what you wanted to do, I wouldn‟t have supported you. B. In order to back you up, it is essential that I know what you intend to do. C. I didn‟t support you as I had no idea about what your plans were. D. No sooner did I back you up than I realized what you intended to do. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49. The team leader allowed members to make important decisions. He fostered their spirit of commitment.

A. Allowing members to make important decisions, the team leader fostered their spirit of commitment. B. On the behalf of the team, the leader made important decisions to foster their spirit of commitment. C. Although the team leader wanted to foster the spirit of commitment among members, he made important decisions on his own. D. All member could make important decisions, so that the spirit of commitment would be discouraged. Question 50. Winston Churchill was a great politician and statesman. He also won the Nobel Prize for literature. A. Winston Churchill won the Nobel Prize for literature so he was great politician and statesman. B. Winston Churchill, a great politician and statesman, also won the Nobel Prize for literature. C. Winston Churchill was a great politician rather than a statesman although he won the Nobel Prize for literature. D. Winning the Nobel Prize for literature, Winston Churchill became a great politician and statesman.

ĐỀ SỐ 9 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. forget B. chore C. perform D. supportive Question 2:A. facial B. economic C. ocean D. beneficial Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. diversity B. biography C. curriculum D. intervention Question 4: A. discuss B. attempt C. reserve D. secret Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: A number of large insurance companieshas their headquarters in the capital city. A B C D Question 6: He can‟t hardly remember the accident because he was only a four-year-old boy when it A B C D occurred. Question 7: My uncle is inNhaTrangon vacation, but I wish he is here so that he could help me repair A B C D my bicycle. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: Look! The yard is wet. It …………… last night. A. had to rain B. ought to rain C. must have rained D. should have rained Question 9: The more you study during the semester, …………. the week before exams. A. the less you have to study B. you have to study the less C. the least you have to study D. the study less you have Question 10: My mother ……….. strawberries for years but she has never had such a good crop before.

B. is growing B. has been growing C. grew D. had grown

Question 11: A giant meteor crashing into the Earth is believed ……………. the extinction of dinosaur. B. to have caused B. to cause C. having caused

D. causing Question 12: …………… he followed my advice, he would not be unemployed now.

B. Were B. Had C. Should D. Unless

Question 13: In England schooling is compulsory _______ all children from the age of 5 to 16. . A. with B. over C. to D. for Question 14: The equator is an …………. line that divides the earth into two.

B. imaginary B. imaginative C. imagination D. imaginable

Question 15: Many restaurants do not ………. their customers to bring pets into the premises. B. require B. discourage C. permit D.

insist Question 16: Tom had to ……. three forms and pay a fine before they allowed him to take his car back.

B. give out B. turn up C. fill out D. put in

Question 17: The principal has ………… an urgent meeting with the teachers. B. called for B. picked out C. turned on D.

made up Question 18: While on a tour, tourists are only given a ………… time at each place of attraction.

B. confined B. limited C. particular D. certain

Question 19: The chairman didn‟t make any ………… upon the matter. B. opinion B. comment C. investment

D. evaluation Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: - Interviewer: “…………………..” - Interviewee: “Thank you”

A. Sit yourself, OK? B. Be seated, please. C. Seat down, will you? D. Please take a sit. Question 21: - “Thanks for inviting me to dinner.”

- “………………………” A. Don‟t worry about it. B. You‟re welcome. Come in and make yourself at home. C. There‟s no need to say that. D. Take it easy. Cheer up. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: His precise explanation of the report pleased the board of directors. A. timely B. exact C. prompt D. ready Question 23: Bullying can hurt people in many different ways, emotionally and physically. Therefore, all the students in my class keep away from the bully. A. notice B. defend C. annoy D. avoid Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Cholera is rare in less developed countries due to poor water and sanitation conditions. It is estimated that 11 million cholera cases occur every year among children under 5 years of age. A. common B. ordinary C. general D. normal Question 25: We waited for our grandmother at the departure hall of the airport for 5 hours as her flight was delayed. A. release B. appearance C. arrival D. transfer Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: As soon as I arrived home, someone knocked at the door.

B. I had to arrive home as someone knocked at the door. B. Had someone knocked at the door, I would have arrived home. C. No sooner had I arrived home than someone knocked at the door. D. I hardly knew someone knocked at the door as I just arrived home.

Question 27: Mr. Kha remembered to take everything except his front door key. B. The only thing which Mr. Kha forgot was his front door key. B. Mr. Kha remembered to take everything including his front door key. C. The only thing that Mr. Kha remembered was his front door key. D. Except his front door key, Mr. Kha forgot everything.

Question 28: For a cold, doctors often recommend that you rest and drink lots of fluids. E. The doctors recommend that you have cold soft drinks. F. Doctors would rather give advice about cold than about fluids. G. Rest and liquids are frequently advised for treatment of colds. H. You were told to come in out of the cold and rest.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: The proposal seemed like a good idea. The manager refused it.

E. The manager refused the proposal though it seemed like a good idea. F. Since the proposal seemed like a good idea, the manager refused it. G. The manager didn‟t like to proposal because it didn‟t seem a good idea. H. The proposal didn‟t seem like a good idea, so the manager didn‟t accept it.

Question 30: Winston Churchill was a great politician and statesman. He also won the Nobel Prize for literature.

E. Winston Churchill won the Nobel Prize for literature so he was a great politician and statesman.

F. Winston Churchill, a great politician and statesman, also won the Nobel Prize for literature.

G. Winston Churchill was a great politician rather than a statesman although he won the Nobel Prize for literature.

H. Winning the Nobel Prize for literature, Winston Churchill became a great politician and statesman.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. The Internet is a great place to look up information. The same information may be found in libraries, but the Internet makes the information (31) …………. 24 hours a day. Furthermore, information on the Internet may be more

up-to-date, and some would never be found in a library. The Internet is not a replacement for libraries, (32)………….. it is an extremely valuable supplement. When you are (33) …………… to the Internet, you are ready to start searching. The basic step for finding what you are looking for in a fast and easy way is: Find a search engine. A search engine is a useful (34)…………. for looking up information on the Internet. Basically, it is an Internet site that will do the searching on the Internet for you. There are many different search engines and web sites for you to use. They are divided up (35) …………… several different categories for your convenience. This will allow you to select a site that will be better for searching different topics. Question 31: A. capable B. available C. manageable D. observable Question 32: A. so B. and C. though D. but Question 33: A. facilitated B. connected C. attached D. purchased Question 34: A. room B. machine C. tool D. pilot Question 35: A. into B. for C. between D. with Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Alligators and crocodiles are both native to America, and they both belong to the group of animals called crocodilians. They also look similar, and many people might even think they are the same animal. There are several differences that can be used to tell them apart. American alligators are much more common than American crocodiles. Because they hate the cold, alligators live in the southeastern part of the country usually in freshwater lakes and swamps. Their skin is dark with bright stripes and spots of yellow. They eat almost anything they can catch, including fish, birds, and occasionally people! Until 1970, it was legal to hunt them, but too many were killed for their skins. Now there are strict controls on hunting, and alligators are again numerous in many areas. There are also strict controls on the hunting of deer and other animals. American crocodiles are a bit different. They are even more sensitive to cold, so they live only in the tropical climate of southern Florida. Most crocodiles prefer the saltwater of coastal areas. They are very shy, so people do not often see them in the wild. Their skin is grayish-green or brown, and their heads are longer and more triangle-shaped than that of an alligator. They eat only fish and other water animals. Crocodiles are listed as an endangered species, so they are also protected by US law. Question 36: What would be the best title for this passage? A. Alligators and Crocodiles: American Brothers B. Crocodilians: Similarities and Differences C. The Animals of the Swamp D. Hunting Crocodiles: Terror in the Swamp Question 37: What don‟t alligators eat? A. water animals B. fish C. garbage D. people Question 38: The word “them”in the passage refers to …………… A. alligators B. people C. birds D. crocodiles Question 39: Which of the following is true according to the passage?

E. Alligators and crocodiles look exactly the same. F. Alligators and crocodiles both prefer warm places. G. Alligators and crocodiles both often hurt people. H. Alligators and crocodiles are both protected.

Question 40: Which of the following sentences should NOT belong in the passage? E. They look similar, and so many people might even think they are the same

animal. F. Their skin is dark, with bright stripes and spots of yellow. G. There are also strict controls on the hunting of deer and other animals. H. They eat only fish and other water animals.

Question 41: Which of the following words best describes how the passage is written? A. chronographic B. storytelling C. comparative D. argumentative Question 42: The passage is most likely taken from …………….

B. an encyclopedia B. an article C. an advertisement D. an autobiography

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correctanswer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. One question that is being debated these days is whether or not genetic engineering is a good thing. We hear this term “genetic engineering” with increasing frequency these days. For those readers who may not be sure of its meaning, some definitions follow. When we speak of genes, we are referring to chemical substances in the cells of all-living things that establish an organism‟s characteristics. Genetic engineering is the changing of certain genes, usually to improve an organism in some way. In recent years, for example, certain genes have been placed in tomato plants to make tomatoes taste better and keep them fresh in supermarket for a longer time. Cows have been

treated with a growth hormone that makes dairy cattle give more milk and reduces the amount of fat in the meat of beef cattle. These sound like positive things, don‟t they? After all, many people say, the technology exists to improve our lives. But there are plenty of people around who oppose genetic engineering. Why? Two specific objections come to mind. One is that the balance of nature might be upset. Suppose, for example, that scientists are able to genetically engineer certain plants so that insects will not eat them. This will protect the plants, but the insects will be deprived of a food supply- and other animals that depend on those insects for food will lose their food supply, too. A second objection is a moral question. Is it acceptable or right for us to change the makeup of living things? Supporters of genetic engineering say the benefits outweigh the dangers. Look at all the improvements that can be made in plants raised for food, they say. Because of genetic engineering, plants can be grown that produce more fruits and vegetables and resist disease. In a word where more and more food will be needed in the future, this is a benefit. The medical advances provided by genetic engineering, say the supporters, are even more impressive. Consider cancer, for example. If genetic engineering can provide a way to cure or prevent this disease, shouldn‟t it be used? And if genetic engineering can be used to kill the virus that causes AIDS, shouldn‟t it be permitted? Opponents of genetic engineering say it should be stopped, or at least limited. Proponents of genetic engineering say it should be promoted and expanded. The debate goes on. Question 43: What is TRUE about genetic engineering, according to paragraph 1?

B. It increases people‟s age. B. It improves fat in the meat.

C. It changes gene‟s parameters. D. It reduces the number of cells. Question 44: Genetic engineering is said to be aimed at ……………… A. changing genes of plants and animals

B. placing new genes into plants C. establishing an organism‟s characteristics

D. improving an organism in some way Question 45: The word “One” in the passage refers to …………….. A. specific objection B. mind C. balance of nature D. example Question 46: It is stated in paragraph 2 that …………………

E. scientists control the number of insects

F. ecosystems should be counter balanced

G. insects protect the plants from extinction

H. people should be concerned about wild animals

Question 47: The word “outweigh”in the passage is closest in meaning to …………. A. have the same value B. be of greater importance C. weigh heavier than D. be less expensive Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the supporters of genetic engineering? A. It has more advantages than weak points. B. It will help to achieve record harvests. C. It can be controlled and stopped any moment. D. It will mean breakthrough in medicine. Question 49: All of the following is mentioned in the passage EXCEPT …………. A. genetic engineering will save plants and insects from extinction B. certain genes can make some vegetables more delicious C. genetic engineering could help sick people D. it‟s harmful to interfere in animal life Question 50: Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage? A. Can genetic engineering be harmful to environment? B. People can manage genetic engineering. C. Genetic engineering: Super foods D. Genetic engineering: Forward or Backward?

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ANSWER KEY

1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. B

11. A 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. B

21. B 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. B

31. B 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. A 36. A 37. C 38. A 39. D 40. C

41. C 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. D