CAREER POINT TEST SERIES FOR AIPMT-MAIN (FULL SYLLABUS) Time : 3 : 00 Hrs. MAX MARKS: 480 Name : ______________________________________Roll No

CAREER POINT

TEST SERIES FOR AIPMT-MAIN (FULL SYLLABUS)

Time : 3 : 00 Hrs. MAX MARKS: 480

Name : ______________________________________Roll No. : ____________________ Date : _____________________

Instructions to Candidates

A. GENERAL : 1. Please read the instructions given for each question carefully and mark the correct answers against the

question numbers on the answer sheet in the respective subjects.

2. Write your Name, Roll No. & Date in the space provided on this cover page of question paper.

3. The Question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for rough work.

4. The answer sheet, a machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.

5. Do not break the seal of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

6. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log Tables, Slide rule, Calculators, Cellular phones, Pagers and Electronic gadgets in any form are Not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

B. FILLING THE OMR : 7. Fill your Name, Roll No., Batch, Course and Centre of Examination in the blocks of OMR sheet and darken circle

properly.

8. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/ MUTILATE THE OMR.

C. PATTERN :

Each subject in this paper consists of following types of questions:-

9. Multiple choice questions with only one correct answer.

10. Column matching type questions.

11. Passage based single correct type questions.

12. Statement type questions.

13. Diagram based questions.

14. Practical / Experimental based questions.

D. MARKING SCHEME : 15. Each correct answer will be awarded +4 marks & –1 mark for each wrong answer.

CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph: 0744-3040000, Fax (0744) 3040050

email : [email protected] ; Website : www.careerpointgroup.com

Now, Schedule practice questions are available on internet also, Visit www.examtayari.com

SEA

L

RTS-P-XIII-11-AIP-main-3

CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 2

PHYSICS

Q.1 A satellite is moving round the earth. In order to

escape it the velocity of satellite must be

increased by:

(1) 20% (2) 41.4%

(3) 1.41% (4) Not possible

Q.2 An electric dipole is placed at the origin and is

directed along the x-axis. At a point P, far away

from the dipole, the electric field is parallel to

the y-axis. OP makes an angle θ with the x-axis,

then:

(1) 3tan =θ (2) 2tan =θ

(3) θ = 45º (4) )2/1(tan =θ

Q.3 There are 27 drops of a conducting fluid. Each has a radius r and they are charged to a potential V0. These are combined to form a bigger drop. Its potential will be:

(1) V0 (2) 3V0 (3) 9V0 (4) 27V0

Q.4 Two lenses having f1 : f2 = 2 : 3 has combination to make no dispersion. Find the ratio of dispersive power of glasses used

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4

Q.5 An object of mass 3m splits into three equal

fragments. Two fragments have velocities jvˆ and

ivˆ . The velocity of the third fragment is

(1) )ˆˆ( ijv − (2) )ˆˆ( jiv −

(3) )ˆˆ( jiv +− (4) 2

)ˆˆ( jiv +

Q.6 A man can throw a stone 100 m away. The maximum height to which he can throw vertically is

(1) 200 m (2) 100 m (3) 50 m (4) 25 m

Q.1 ,d mixzg iFoh ds pkjksa vksj xfreku gSA bldk

iyk;u djus ds fy;s mixzg ds osx dks fdrus

izfr'kr c<+k;k tkuk pkfg;s &

(1) 20% (2) 41.4% (3) 1.41% (4) lEHko ugha gS

Q.2 ,d fo|qr f/kzqo ewy fcUnq ij fLFkr gS rFkk x-vk

dh vksj funsZf'kr gSA ,d fcUnq P ij, tks f/kzqo ls

cgqr nwj gS] fo|qr kS=k y-vk ds lekUrj gSA OP, x

vk ds lkFk dks.k θ cukrh gS rks

(1) 3tan =θ (2) 2tan =θ

(3) θ = 45º (4) )2/1(tan =θ

Q.3 ,d pkyd nzo dh 27 cwans gaSA izR;sd dh f=kT;k r gS rFkk mUgSa foHko V0 rd vkosf'kr fd;k tkrk gSA os

layf;r gksdj ,d cM+h cwan dk fuekZ.k djrh gaSA

bldk foHko gksxk - (1) V0 (2) 3V0 (3) 9V0 (4) 27V0

Q.4 f1 : f2 = 2 : 3 okys nks ySUlksa dk la;kstu dksbZ foksi.k

ugha n'kkZrk gSA iz;qDr fd;s x;s dk¡pksa dh foksi.k

kerk dk vuqikr Kkr dhft,A

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4

Q.5 3m nzO;eku dk ,d fi.M rhu cjkcj Hkkxksa esa VwV

tkrk gSA nksuksa Hkkxksa ds osx jvˆ o ivˆ gSaA rrh; Hkkx

dk osx gS

(1) )ˆˆ( ijv − (2) )ˆˆ( jiv −

(3) )ˆˆ( jiv +− (4) 2

)ˆˆ( jiv +

Q.6 ,d vkneh ,d iRFkj dks 100 m nwj Qsad ldrk gSA og vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ ftl rd og m/okZ/kj :i ls iRFkj dks Qsad ldrk gS] gS&

(1) 200 m (2) 100 m (3) 50 m (4) 25 m


Q.7 For the same rise in temperature of one mole of gas at constant volume, heat required for a non linear triatomic gas is K times that required for monoatomic gas. The value of K is

(1) 1 (2) 0.5 (3) 2 (4) 2.5

Q.8 A string of length l is fixed at one end and carries

a mass m at the other end. The string makes 2/π rps around a vertical axis through the fixed end. What is the tension in string ?

(1) ml (2) 16 ml (3) 4 ml (4) 2 ml

Q.9 A deuterium nucleus H21 combines with a

tritium nucleus H31 to form a heavier helium

nucleus He42 with the release of a neutron ).(1

0 n

The fusion reaction is represented by the equation

nHeHH 10

42

31

21 +→+

In this reaction, the mass of He42 + mass of n1

0 is

(1) less than the mass of H21 + mass of H3

1

(2) greater than the mass of H21 + mass of H3

1

(3) the same as the mass of H21 + mass of H3

1

(4) twice the mass of H21 + mass of H3

1

Q.10 What is the energy released in the fission reaction

nXXU 10

17746

11746

23692 2++→

Given that the binding energy per nucleon of X is

8.5 MeV and that of U23692 is 7.58 MeV ?

(1) 20 MeV (2) 180 MeV (3) 200 MeV (4) 2000 MeV

Q.11 Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are (1) electromagnetic radiations (2) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus (3) charged particles emitted by the nucleus (4) neutral particles

Q.7 fu;r vk;ru ij ,d eksy xSl ds rkieku esa leku

of) ds fy;s] ,d vjs[kh; f=kijek.kqd xSl ds fy;s

vko';d Å"ek ,d ijek.kqd xSl ds fy;s vko';d

m"ek ls K xquk gksrh gSA K dk eku gS (1) 1 (2) 0.5 (3) 2 (4) 2.5

Q.8 l yEckbZ dh ,d Mksjh ,d fljs ij n<+ gS rFkk nwljs

fljs ij m nzO;eku j[krh gSA Mksjh n<+ fljs ds lkisk

m/okZ/kj vk ds pkjksa vksj 2/π rps cukrh gSA Mksjh esa

ruko D;k gS ?

(1) ml (2) 16 ml (3) 4 ml (4) 2 ml

Q.9 ,d M~;wVhfj;e ukfHkd H21 ,d U;wVªkWu )( n1

0 dks

eqDr djus ds lkFk ,d Hkkjh ghfy;e ukfHkd He42

ds fuekZ.k ds fy;s ,d fVªVh;e ukfHkd H31 ds lkFk

layf;r gksrk gSA lay;u vfHkfØ;k fuEu lehdj.k kjk iznf'kZr dh tkrh gS&

nHeHH 10

42

31

21 +→+

bl vfHkfØ;k esa He42 dk nzO;eku + n1

0 dk nzO;eku gS

(1) H21 dk nzO;eku + H3

1 ds nzO;eku ls de


1 ds nzO;eku ls vf/kd


1 ds nzO;eku ds cjkcj


1 ds nzO;eku ls nqxquk

Q.10 fuEu fo[k.Mu vfHkfØ;k esa eqDr ÅtkZ D;k gS \

nXXU 10

17746

11746

23692 2++→

fn;k x;k gS fd X dh izfr U;wfDyvkWu cU/ku ÅtkZ

8.5 MeV rFkk U23692 dh 7.58 MeV gS ?

(1) 20 MeV (2) 180 MeV (3) 200 MeV (4) 2000 MeV

Q.11 ,d jsfM;kslfØ; inkFkZ kjk mRlftZr chVk fdj.ksa gSa

(1) fo|qr pqEcdh; fofdj.ksa

(2) ukfHkd ds pkjksa vksj ifjØe.k dj jgs bysDVªkWu

(3) ukfHkd kjk mRlftZr vkosf'kr d.k

(4) mnklhu d.k


Q.12 Which of the following statements concerning the depletion zone of an unbiased P-N junction are true?

(a) The width of the zone is independent of the densities of the dopants (impurities)

(b) The width of the zone is dependent on the densities of the dopants

(c) The electric field in the zone is provided by the electrons in the conduction band and the holes in the valence band

(d) The electric field in the zone is produced by the ionized dopant atoms

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, b, c (4) b, d Q.13 When a small motor is joined in series with a

suitable light bulb and battery and the current is switched on:

(a) the light is bright at first and then becomes dim

(b) the light has the same brightness throughout (c) the speed of the motor is proportional to its

back emf (d) the filament resistance decreases as the

current increases

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, c (4) b, c, d Q.14 Two magnets are held together in a vibration

magnetometer and are allowed to oscillate in the earth's magnetic field. With like poles together, 12 oscillations per minute are made but for unlike poles together only 4 oscillations per minute are executed. The ratio of their magnetic moments is:

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 3 : 5 (4) 5 : 4

Q.15 A rod of iron of Young’s modulus Y = 2.0 × 1011 N/m2 just fits the gap between two rigid supports 1m apart. If the rod is heated through 100ºC the strain energy of the rod is (α = 18 × 10–6 ºC–1 and area of cross-section A = 1 cm2)

(1) 32.4 J (2) 32. 4 mJ (3) 26.4 J (4) 26.4 mJ

Q.12 ,d vck;flr P-N laf/k dh vok; ijr ls

lEcfU/kr fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lR; gS ?

(a) ks=k dh pkSM+kbZ Mksidksa (v'kqf);k¡) ds ?kuRoksa ls

LorU=k gksrh gS

(b) ks=k dh pkSM+kbZ Mksidksa (v'kqf);k¡) ds ?kuRoksa ij

fuHkZj djrh gS

(c) kS=k esa fo|qr kS=k pkyu cS.M esa bysDVªkWu kjk

rFkk la;ksth cS.M esa gkWy kjk mRiUu gksrk gS

(d) kS=k esa fo|qr kS=k vk;uhdr Mksid ijek.kqvksa

kjk mRiUu gksrk gS

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, b, c (4) b, d Q.13 tc ,d NksVh eksVj dks ,d mi;qZDr izdk'k cYc o

cSVjh ds lkFk Js.khØe esa tksM+k tkrk gS rFkk /kkjk

izokg izkjEHk gksrk gS rks

(a) igys izdk'k pednkj gksrk gS fQj eUn gks tkrk gS

(b) izdk'k ges'kk mruk gh pednkj gksrk gS

(c) eksVj dh pky blds i'p fo|qr okgd cy ds

lekuqikrh gksrh gS

(d) /kkjk c<+us ds lkFk rUrq izfrjks/k de gksrk gS

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, c (4) b, c, d

Q.14 nks pqEcd ,d nkSyu pqEcdRoekih esa ,d lkFk j[ks

tkrs gaS rFkk bUgSa iFoh ds pqEcdh; kS=k esa nkSyu djus fn;k tkrk gSA ,d leku /kzqoksa ds lkFk gksus ij 12 nkSyu izfr feuV izkIr gksrs gSa ysfdu vleku /kzqoksa ds lkFk gksus ij dsoy 4 nkSyu izfr feuV izkIr gksrs gaSA muds pqEcdh; vk?kw.kksZ dk vuqikr gS

(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 3 : 5 (4) 5 : 4

Q.15 Y = 2.0 × 1011 N/m2 ;ax&xq.kkad dh ykSgs dh ,d NM+ 1m nwj fLFkr nks n<+ vk/kkjksa ds e/; ds vUrjky esaa Bhd fQV gksrh gSA ;fn NM+ 100ºC rd xeZ dh tkrh gS rks NM+ dh fodfr ÅtkZ gS (α = 18 × 10–6 ºC–1 rFkk vuqizLFk dkV ks=kQy A = 1 cm2)

(1) 32.4 J (2) 32. 4 mJ (3) 26.4 J (4) 26.4 mJ


Q.16 In which case will there be no change in phase of displacement-wave ?

(a) Wave propagating from denser to rarer medium

(b) Wave propagating from rarer to denser medium

(c) Wave is reflected from a denser boundary (d) Wave is reflected from a rarer boundary

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, b, d (4) a, c

Q.17 Charges Q1 and Q2 lie inside and outside respectively of a closed surface S. Let E be the field at any point on S and φ be the flux of E over S:

(a) if Q1 changes, both E and φ will change (b) if Q2 changes, E will change but φ will not

change (c) if Q1 = 0 and Q2 ≠ 0, then E ≠ 0 but φ = 0 (d) if Q1 ≠ 0 and Q2 = 0 then E = 0 but φ ≠ 0 (1) a, b (2) a, b, c (3) a, c (4) None

Q.18 Capacitor C1 of capacitance 1 µF and capacitor C2 of capacitance 2 µF are separately charged fully by a common battery. The two capacitors are then separately allowed to discharge through equal resistors at time t = 0;

(a) the current in each of the two discharging circuits is zero at t = 0

(b) the currents in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are equal but not zero

(c) the currents in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are unequal

(d) capacitor C1 loses 50% of its initial charge sooner than C2 loses 50% of its initial charge

(1) a, c (2) b, d (iii) c,d (iv) None

Q.19 In case of explosion of a bomb which of the following changes

(a) Kinetic energy (b) Mechanical energy (c) Chemical energy (d) Energy Right answer is (1) a, b (2) a, b, c (3) a, b, c, d (4) b, c

Q.16 dkSulh fLFkfr es foLFkkiu rjax dh dyk esa dksbZ

ifjoZru ugha gksxk ?

(a) l?ku ls fojy ek/;e esa xfr djrh gqbZ rjax

(b) fojy ls l?ku ek/;e esas tkrh gqbZ rjax

(c) rjax ,d l?ku lhek ls ijkofrZr gks

(d) rjax ,d fojy lhek ls ijkofrZr gks

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, b, d (4) a, c

Q.17 vkos'k Q1 o Q2 ,d cUn i"B S ds Øe'k% vUnj o ckgj dh vksj j[ks gSaA ekuk S ij fdlh fcUnq ij fo|qr kS=k E gS rFkk S ij E dh ¶yDl φ gS

(a) ;fn Q1 ifjofrZr gksrk gS rks E o φ nksuksa ifjofrZr gksaxs

(b) ;fn Q2 ifjofrZr gksrk gS] E ifjofrZr gksxk ijUrq φ ifjofrZr ugha gksxk

(c) ;fn Q1 = 0 rFkk Q2 ≠ 0, rks E ≠ 0 ysfdu φ = 0 (d) ;fn Q1 ≠ 0 rFkk Q2 = 0 rks E = 0 ysfdu φ ≠ 0 (1) a, b (2) a, b, c (3) a, c (4) dksbZ ugha Q.18 1 µF /kkfjrk dk la/kkfj=k C1 rFkk 2µF /kkfjrk dk

la/kkfj=k C2 ,d mHk;fu"B cSVjh kjk vyx&vyx

iw.kZr% vkosf'kr fd;s tkrs gaSA vc nksuksa la/kkfj=kksa dks

t = 0 le; ij leku izfrjks/kdksa ls fujkosf'kr gksus

fn;k tkrk gS - (a) t = 0 ij nksuksa fujkos'ku ifjiFkksa esa /kkjk;s 'kwU;

gksrh gSaA (b) t = 0 ij nksuksa fujkos'ku ifjiFkksa esa /kkjk;sa leku

gksrh gS ysfdu 'kwU; ugha (c) t = 0 ij nksuksa fujkos'ku ifjiFkksa esa /kkjk;sa

vleku gksrh gS (d) la/kkfj=k C1 vius izkjfeHkd vkos'k dk 50%, C2

ds vius izkjfEHkd vkos'k ds 50% dh viskk tYnh [kks nsrk gS

(1) a, c (2) b, d (iii) c,d (iv) dksbZ ugha

Q.19 ,d ce ds foLQksV dh fLFkfr esa fuEu esa ls fduesa ifjorZu gksrk gS

(a) xfrt ÅtkZ (b) ;kaf=kd ÅtkZ (c) jklk;fud ÅtkZ (d) ÅtkZ

lgh mÙkj gS-

(1) a, b (2) a, b, c (3) a, b, c, d (4) b, c


Q.20 When two particles collide and stick together (a) Mechanical energy is conserved (b) Energy is conserved (c) K.E. is conserved (d) Work is negative Right answer is (1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) b, d

Q.21 A gas undergoes a change in its state from position A to position B via three different paths as shown in figure. Select the correct statement

V

p

0

A B

1 2 3

x

(a) Heat is absorbed by the gas in all the three

paths (b) Heat absorbed/released by the gas is

maximum in path 1 (c) Temperature of the gas increases first and

then decreases continuously in path 1 (d) Change in internal energy of the gas is same

along all the three paths (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c,d (3) b, c, d (4) a, b, d

Q.22 Which of the following is equation of state for an adiabatic process ?

(a) PVγ = constant (b) p/ργ = constant (c) TVγ–1 = constant (d) Tγ /pγ–1 = constant

(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c,d (3) b, c, d (4) a, b, d

Passage Based Questions : Passage :1 (Ques.23 to 24) Figure shows the circuit of a potentiometer. The

length of the potentiometer wire AB is 50 cm. The e.m.f. of the battery is 4 volt, having negligible internal resistance. Values of resistances R1 and R2 are 15 ohm and 5 ohm respectively. When both the keys are open, the null point is obtained at a distance of 31.25cm from end A but when both the keys are closed, the balance length reduces to 5cm only. Given RAB = 10Ω.

Q.20 tc nks d.k Vdjkdj ,d lkFk fpid tkrs gSa rks (a) ;kaf=kd ÅtkZ lajfkr jgrh gS (b) ÅtkZ lajfkr jgrh gS (c) xfrt ÅtkZ lajfkr jgrh gS (d) dk;Z _.kkRed gksrk gS lgh mÙkj gS- (1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) b, d

Q.21 ,d xSl fp=k esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj rhu fHkUu iFkkssa ls fLFkfr A ls fLFkfr B rd bldh voLFkk esa ifjorZu ls xqtjrh gSA lgh dFku pqfu;s

V

p

0

A B

123

x

(a) lHkh rhu iFkksa esa xSl kjk Å"ek vo'kksf"kr gksrh gS

(b) xSl kjk vo'kksf"kr@eqDr Å"ek iFk 1 esa vf/kdre gksrh gS

(c) xSl dk rki igys c<+rk gS rFkk fQj iFk 1 esa lrr~ :i ls ?kVrk gS

(d) xSl dh vkUrfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu lHkh rhu iFkksa esa leku gksrk gS

(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c,d (3) b, c, d (4) a, b, d Q.22 fuEu esa ls dkSulh voLFkk lehdj.k :ks"e izØe

ds fy;s gS ? (a) PVγ = fu;r (b) p/ργ = fu;r (c) TVγ–1 = fu;r (d) Tγ /pγ–1 = fu;r (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c,d (3) b, c, d (4) a, b, d x|ka'k ij vk/kkfjr iz'u: x|ka'k : 1 (iz'u 23 ls 24)

fp=k ,d foHkoekih dk ifjiFk n'kkZrk gSA foHkoekih

rkj AB dh yEckbZ 50 cm gSA cSVjh dk fo|qr okgd

cy 4 oksYV gS ftldk vkUrfjd izfrjks/k ux.; gSA

R1 o R2 izfrjks/kksa ds eku Øe'k% 15 vkse o 5 vkse gSaA

tc nksuksa dqath [kqyh gS rks vfoksi fcUnq fljs A ls

31.25cm nwjh ij izkIr gksrk gS ysfdu tc nksuksa

dqUth cUn gS rks larqyu yEckbZ dsoy 5cm jg tkrh

gSA fn;k x;k gS RAB = 10Ω.


GE2

E1 K1

R1

A B

R2

Q.23 The e.m.f. of the cell E2 is: (1) 1 volt (2) 2 volt (3) 3 volt (4) 4 volt Q.24 The balance length when key K2 is open and K1

is closed, is given by: (1) 10.5 cm (2) 11.5 cm (3) 12.5 cm (4) 13.5 cm Q.25 Which of the following demonstrate that earth

has a magnetic field ? (a) A freely suspended bar magnet always

points in the same direction (b) A large quantity of iron ore is found buried

in the earth (c) The intensity of cosmic rays of charged

particles coming from space to earth is more at the poles than at the equator

(d) The earth is surrounded by an ionosphere (a shell of charged particles)

(1) a, b (2) c,d (3) a, c (4) a, d Column Matching : Q. 26 For real object, nature of the image can be

Column I Column II (a) Convex lens (p) Real , enlarged (b) Concave lens (q) Virtual, enlarged (c) Convex mirror (r) Real, small (s) Virtual, small

Right match is (1) a → p,q,r, b → s, c → s (2) a → p,s, b → q, c → r,s (3) a → r,s, b → p,r, c → p,s (4) None

GE2

E1 K1

R1

A B

R2

Q.23 lSy E2 dk fo|qr okgd cy gS-

(1) 1 volt (2) 2 volt (3) 3 volt (4) 4 volt

Q.24 larqyu yEckbZ tc dqUth K2 [kqyh gS rFkk K1 cUn

gS] nh tkrh gS

(1) 10.5 cm (2) 11.5 cm (3) 12.5 cm (4) 13.5 cm Q.25 fuEu esa ls dkSu ;s n'kkZrk gS fd iFoh dk pqEcdh;

kS=k gksrk gS ? (a) ,d eqDr :i ls yVdk gqvk NM+ pqEcd lnk

leku fn'kk dks bafxr djrk gS (b) ykSg v;Ld dh ,d fo'kky ek=kk iFoh esa nch

gqbZ ik;h tkrh gS (c) vUrfjk ls iFoh ij vkrs gq;s vkosf'kr d.kksa dh

dkWfLed fdj.kksa dh rhozrk Hkqe/; js[kk dh viskk /kzqoksa ij vf/kd gksrh gS

(d) iFoh vk;ue.My kjk ifjc) gS (vkosf'kr d.kksa dk ,d dks'k)

(1) a, b (2) c,d (3) a, c (4) a, d

LrEHkksa dk feyku dhft;s : Q.26 okLrfod fcEc ds fy;s] izfrfcEc dh izdfr gks

ldrh gS LrEHk I LrEHk II

(a) mÙky ySUl (p) okLrfod] vkof/kZr (b) vory ySUl (q) vkHkklh] vkof/kZr (c) mÙky niZ.k (r) okLrfod] NksVk (s) vkHkklh] NksVk

lgh mÙkj gS (1) a → p,q,r, b → s, c → s (2) a → p,s, b → q, c → r,s (3) a → r,s, b → p,r, c → p,s (4) dksbZ ugha


Q.27 Match the correct column for stationary wave

Column I Column II (a) Node (p) maximum amplitude (b) Antinode (q) minimum amplitude (c) Particle between

nearest node (r) some are in same phase and some in opposite

(d) particle between nearest antinode

(s) Vibrate in same phase

(1) a → p, b → q, c → r, d → s (2) a → q, b → p, c → r, d → s (3) a → q, b → p, c → s, d → r (4) a → q, b → s, c → p, d → r

Q.28 Referring to figure A, B and C, match column-I with Column-II.

L B1(bulb)

(A)

C B2(bulb)

(B)

C B3(bulb)

(C)

L

(Assume the same value of applied voltage,

amplitude in each case and also a negligible internal resistance of the source).

Column I Column II (a) Brightness of

bulb B1 will increase if

(p) ω = LC1

(b) Brightness of bulb B2 will increase if

(q) Frequency is increased

(c) Brightness of bulb B3 may increase or decrease if

(r) Space between the plates of capacitor is filled with a material of high dielectric constant (assuming the capacitor to be an air-capacitor initially)

(d) Brightness of bulb B3 will be maximum if

(s) A material of high permeability is inserted in the inductor along its axis (assuming the inductor to be an air inductor initially)

(1) a → q; b → p, r ; c → q,r ; d → q (2) a → 0; b → q, r ; c → q,r,s; d → p (3) a → p, q; b → q, r; c → p,r; d → p, q (4) a → 0; b → p, r; c → q,s; d → q

Q. 27 vizxkeh rjax ds fy, LrEHkksa dk lgh feyku dhft,A

LrEHk I LrEHk II (a) fuLian (p) vf/kdre vk;ke (b) izLian (q) fuEure vk;ke (c) lcls utnhd

fuLian ds e/; d.k (r) dqN leku dyk esa rFkk dqN foifjr dyk esa gksrs gSa

(d) lcls utnhd izLian ds e/; d.k

(s) leku dyk esa dEiu djrs gSa

(1) a → p, b → q, c → r, d → s (2) a → q, b → p, c → r, d → s (3) a → q, b → p, c → s, d → r (4) a → q, b → s, c → p, d → r

Q. 28 fp=k A, B o C dks /;ku esa j[krs gq;s] LrEHk-I dk LrEHk -II ls feyku dhft,A

L B1(bulb)

(A)

C B2(bulb)

(B)

C B3(bulb)

(C)

L

(ekukfd izR;sd fLFkfr esa vkjksfir oksYVrk] vk;ke

ds eku leku gSa rFkk L=kksr dk vkUrfjd izfrjks/k Hkh ux.; gS).

LrEHk I LrEHk II (a) cYc B1 dh

ped c<+sxh ;fn (p) ω =

LC1

(b) cYc B2 dh ped c<+sxh ;fn

(q) vkofÙk c<+k;h tkrh gS

(c) cYc B3 dh ped c<+ ;k ?kV ldrh gS ;fn

(r) la/kkfj=k dh IysVksa ds e/; dk LFkku mPp ijkoS|qrkad ds ,d inkFkZ ls Hkjk tkrk gS (ekukfd la/kkfj=k izkjEHk esa ok;q&la/kkfj=k gS)

(d) cYc B3 dh ped vf/kdre gksxh ;fn

(s) mPp ikjxE;rk dk ,d inkFkZ blds vk ds vuqfn'k izsjd esa izos'k djk;k tkrk gS (ekukfd izsjd izkjEHk esa dsoy ok;q izsjd gS)

(1) a → q; b → p, r ; c → q,r ; d → q (2) a → 0; b → q, r ; c → q,r,s; d → p (3) a → p, q; b → q, r; c → p,r; d → p, q (4) a → 0; b → p, r; c → q,s; d → q


A & R Type Questions : (Q. 29 to 30) The following questions given below consist

of an Assertion and Reason Type questions. Use the following Key to choose theappropriate answer. (A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &

Reason is a correct explanation of theAssertion.

(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True butReason is not a correct explanation ofthe Assertion.

(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason isFalse.

(D) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

Q.29 Assertion : A particle of mass M at rest decaysinto two particles of masses m1 and m2 which move with velocities v1 and v2 respectively. Theirrespective de Broglie wavelengths are λ1 and λ2. If m1 > m2, then λ1 > λ2.

Reason : The de Broglie wavelength of a particlehaving momentum p is λ = h/p.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Q.30 Assertion : In common-base configuration, the

current gain of transistor is less than unity Reason : The collector terminal is reverse biased

for amplification. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

dFku ,oa dkj.k izdkj ds iz'u % (Q. 29 ls 30)

uhps fn;s x;s fuEufyf[kr iz'u "dFku" rFkk

"dkj.k" izdkj ds iz'u gSaA vr% mfpr mÙkj dk

p;u djus ds fy;s fuEu rkfydk dk mi;ksx

dhft;sA (A) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa rFkk

dkj.k dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA (B) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu

dkj.k( dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA (C) ;fn dFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA (D) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa vlR; gSA

Q.29 dFku : fojke ij M nzO;eku dk ,d d.k m1 o m2

nzO;ekuksa ds nksuksa d.kksa esa kf;r gksrk gS tks Øe'k%v1 o v2 osxksa ls xfr djrs gSaA budh vkisfkd nh&czksXyh rjaxnS/;Z λ1 o λ2 gSA ;fn m1 > m2 gS rksλ1 > λ2 gksxkA

dkj.k : laosx p okys ,d d.k dh nh&czksXyh rajxnS/;Z λ = h/p gksrh gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q. 30 dFku : mHk;fu"B vk/kkj vfHkfoU;kl esa] VaªkftLVj dh /kkjk yfC/k bZdkbZ ls de gksrh gSA

dkj.k : laxzkgd VfeZuy izo/kZu ds fy;s i'p ck;flr gksrk gS A

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


CHEMISTRY

Q.31 When ZnS and PbS minerals are present

together, then NaCN is added to separate them in

the froth floatation process as a depressant,

because :

(1) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on

ZnS

(2) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4]

(3) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]

(4) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN

Q.32 Fluorine has the highest electronegativity among

the ns2 np5 group on the Pauling scale, but theelectron affinity of fluorine is less than that ofchlorine because :

(1) the atomic number of fluorine is less thanthat of chlorine

(2) fluorine being the first member of the familybehaves in an unusual manner

(3) chlorine can accommodate an electron betterthan fluorine by utilizing its vacant 3d-orbital

(4) small size, high electron density and anincreased electron repulsion make additionof an electron to fluorine less favourablethan that in the case of chlorine

Q.33 The sizes of the second and third row transition

elements are almost the same. This is due to : (1) d- and f-orbitals do not shield the nuclear

charge very effectively (2) lanthanide contraction (3) Both are true (4) None is true Q.34 Which is the correct order of I.E. of coinage

metals? (1) Cu < Ag < Au (2) Cu > Ag > Au (3) Cu > Ag ≈ Au (4) Cu > Ag < Au

Q.31 tc ZnS rFkk PbS [kfut ,d lkFk mifLFkr gksrs gSa rks >kx Iyou fof/k esa budks iFkd djus ds fy, NaCN dks voued (depressant) ds :i esa feyk;k tkrk gS] D;ksafd :

(1) Pb(CN)2 voksfir gksrk gS tcfd ZnS ij dksbZ izHkko ugha gksrk

(2) ZnS, foys; ladqy Na2[Zn(CN)4] cukrk gS

(3) PbS, foys; ladqy Na2[Pb(CN)4] cukrk gS

(4) ;s NaCN ds feykus ij iFkd ugha gks ldrs Q.32 ¶yksjhu ikWfyax iSekus ij ns2 np5 oxZ ds fy,

vf/kdre fo|qr fo|qr_.krk j[krk gS] ysfdu ¶yksjhu dh bysDVªkWu ca/kqrk Dyksjhu ls vf/kd gksrh gS] D;ksafd :

(1) ¶yksjhu dk ijek.kq Øekad Dyksjhu ls de gksrk

gS

(2) ¶yksjhu gSykstu ifjokj dk izFke lnL; gksus ls

vlkekU; O;ogkj djrk gS

(3) Dyksjhu] ¶yksjhu dh rqyuk esa bysDVªkWu dks fjä 3d-dkd dk mi;ksx djrs gq, vf/kd mi;qä LFkku ns ldrk gS

(4) ¶yksjhu dk NksVk vkdkj] mPp bysDVªkWu ?kuRo vkSj c<+rs gq, bysDVªkWu izfrd"kZ.k ds dkj.k bysDVªkWu dk tqM+uk Dyksjhu dh rqyuk esa de vuqdwy gS

Q.33 frh; rFkk rrh; laØe.k Js.kh ds rRoksa ds vkdkj

yxHkx leku gksrs gSaA bldk dkj.k gS : (1) d- rFkk f-dkd ds bysDVªkWu izHkkoh ukfHkdh;

vkos'k dks vf/kd ifjjfkr ugha djrs gSa

(2) ysUFkSukbM ladqpu

(3) nksuksa lgh gSa

(4) dksbZ lgh ugha gS Q.34 flDdk /kkrqvksa dh vk;uu ÅtkZ dk lgh Øe dkSulk

gS ? (1) Cu < Ag < Au (2) Cu > Ag > Au (3) Cu > Ag ≈ Au (4) Cu > Ag < Au


Q.35 28 g N2 and 6 g H2 were mixed. At equilibrium17 g NH3 was formed. The weight of N2 and H2

at equilibrium are respectively : (1) 11 g, zero (2) 1 g, 3 g (3) 14 g, 3 g (4) 11 g, 3 g Q.36 If 0.5 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mol of

Na3PO4, the maximum amount of Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is :

(1) 0.70 mol (2) 0.50 mol (3) 0.20 mol (4) 0.10 mol Q.37 As per Bohr model, the minimum energy

required to remove an electron from the groundstate of doubly ionized Li atom (Z = 3) is :

(1) 1.51 eV (2) 13.6 eV (3) 40.8 eV (4) 122.4 eV Q.38 The maximum pH of a solution which is 0.10 M

in Mg2+ from which Mg(OH)2 is not precipitatedis [ksp = 1.2 × 10–11] :

(1) 4.96 (2) 6.96 (3) 7.54 (4) 9.04 Q.39 Given is Latimer diagram in acidic medium

(H+ = 1 M) :

Eº

HNO2 0.996 V 1.59 V NO N2O

The value of Eº would be : (1) 2.586 V (2) 0.594 V (3) 1.293 V (4) – 1.293 V Q.40 In the reaction,

CH3 CH CH3

Br

→ KOH.Alc (A)Peroxide

HBr → (B)DMSO

AgF → (C)

the compound (C) is : (1) CH3—CH2CH2F (2) CH3 CH CH3

F (3) CH3 CH CH2I

F

(4) CH3 CH CHF

Q.35 28 g N2 rFkk 6 g H2 fefJr gksrh gS] rks lkE; ij 17 g NH3 fufeZr gksrh gSA lkE; ij N2 rFkk H2 ds Hkkj Øe'k% gSa :

(1) 11 g, 'kwU; (2) 1 g, 3 g

(3) 14 g, 3 g (4) 11 g, 3 g Q.36 ;fn BaCl2 ds 0.5 eksy] Na3PO4 ds 0.20 eksy ds

lkFk fefJr gS] rks Ba3(PO4)2 dh vf/kdre ek=kk ftls cuk;k tk ldrk gks] gS :

(1) 0.70 mol (2) 0.50 mol (3) 0.20 mol (4) 0.10 mol Q.37 izR;sd cksgj ekWMy esa fvk;fur Li ijek.kq (Z = 3)

dh ewy voLFkk ls ,d bysDVªkWu dks gVkus ds fy, vko';d U;wure ÅtkZ gS :

(1) 1.51 eV (2) 13.6 eV (3) 40.8 eV (4) 122.4 eV Q.38 0.10 M foy;u dh vf/kdre pH, ftlesa Mg(OH)2

ls Mg2+ vk;u voksfir ugha gksrs gSa] gS

[ksp = 1.2 × 10–11] : (1) 4.96 (2) 6.96 (3) 7.54 (4) 9.04 Q.39 fn;k x;k ysfVej vkjs[k vEyh; ek/;e esa gS (H+ = 1 M) :

Eº

HNO2 0.996 V 1.59 V NO N2O

Eº dk eku gksxk :

(1) 2.586 V (2) 0.594 V (3) 1.293 V (4) – 1.293 V Q.40 vfHkfØ;k esa

CH3 CH CH3

Br

→ KOH.Alc (A)Peroxide

HBr → (B)DMSO

AgF → (C)

;kSfxd (C) gS :

(1) CH3—CH2CH2F (2) CH3 CH CH3

F (3) CH3 CH CH2I

F

(4) CH3 CH CHF


Q.41 Which is the most stable carbocation formedas intermediate in nucleophilic substitutionreaction ?

(1) CH2 CH CH2

⊕ (2)

CH2

⊕

(3) (CH3)3C

⊕ (4)

⊕

Q.42 Arrange the following resonating structures ofvinyl chloride in order of decreasing stability :

CH2 CH Cl CH2 CH Cl CH2 CH Cl

+ +

(I) (II) (III) (1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > I > III (4) I > II ≡≡ III

Q.43

CH3 CH CH2 C O CH2 CH CH3

Cl Br

O

Select the correct IUPAC name among thefollowing :

(1) 3-chlorobutyl-2-bromopropanoate (2) 2-chlorobutyl-3-bromopropanoate (3) 2-bromopropyl-3-chlorobutanoate (4) β-bromopropyl-3-chlorobutyrate Q.44 Which of the following are isostructual with

XeF4 :

(a) −4BrF (b) I2Cl6

(c) XeO4 (d) 24PtCl−

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) a, c, d (4) a, b, d Q.45 Which of the following is chiral : (a) cis-[CrCl2(OX)2]–4 (b) cis-[CrCl2(NH3)4]+ (c) trans[CrCl2(OX)2]–3 (d) cis[RhH(CO)(PR3)2] (1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) a, c, d (4) only a

Q.41 ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k esa dkSulk vk;u lokZf/kd LFkk;h dkckZs/kuk;u ds :i esa fufeZr gksrk gS ?

(1) CH2 CH CH2

⊕ (2)

CH2

⊕

(3) (CH3)3C⊕

(4)

⊕

Q.42 fuEu vuquknh lajpukvksa dks foukby DyksjkbM ds ?kVrs LFkkf;Ro ds Øe esa O;ofLFkr dhft, :

CH2 CH Cl CH2 CH Cl CH2 CH Cl

+ +

(I) (II) (III) (1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > I > III (4) I > II ≡≡ III

Q.43

CH3 CH CH2 C O CH2 CH CH3

Cl Br

O

fuEu esa ls lgh IUPAC uke dk p;u dhft, :

(1) 3-DyksjksC;qfVy-2-czkseksizksisuks,V

(2) 2-DyksjksC;qfVy-3-czkseksizksisuks,V

(3) 2-czkseksizksfiy-3-DyksjksC;qVsuks,V

(4) β-czkseksizksfiy-3-DyksjksC;qVsuks,V

Q.44 fuEu esa ls dkSuls XeF4 ds lkFk lelajpuked gS :

(a) −4BrF (b) I2Cl6

(c) XeO4 (d) 24PtCl−

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) a, c, d (4) a, b, d Q.45 fuEu esa ls dkSulk fdjSy gS :

(a) cis-[CrCl2(OX)2]–4 (b) cis-[CrCl2(NH3)4]+ (c) trans[CrCl2(OX)2]–3 (d) cis[RhH(CO)(PR3)2] (1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) a, c, d (4) dsoy a


Q.46 Acidified KMnO4 decolarised by : (a) H2O2 (b) nascent hydrogen (c) SO3 (d) O3

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) a, b, d (4) a, c, d Q.47 A neutral salt of sodium (P) on heating liberate

gas 'A' heaving a highly alkaline residue (Q). Thegas 'A' is colourless, odourless and turns a solution of Ca(OH)2 milky. The compound :

(a) P is NaHCO3 (b) Q is Na2CO3 (c) 'A' is CO2 (d) 'p' is NH4HCO3 (1) a, b, c (2) a, b (3) a, c, d (4) b, c, d Q.48 Which is (are) not lyophobic in nature ? (a) Gelatin (b) Sulphur (c) Starch (d) Protein (1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d Q.49 For an ionic compound AB crystallizes in a

body-centred cubic lattice with a as the edgelength of unit cell :

(a) the minimum distance between A and A is a (b) the mean distance between A and B is

2/a3 (c) the density of crystal is given by

ρ =A

AB3 N

M2a

(d) the minimum distance between B and B isa/2

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, b, d Q.50 Which of the following statements are correct ? (a) First law of thermodynamics is not adequate

in predicting the direction of the process (b) In an exothermic reaction, the total enthalpy

of products is greater than that of reactants (c) In an endothermic reaction, the total

enthalpy of products is greater than that ofreactants

(d) The standard enthalpy of formation ofdiamond is zero at 298 K and 1 atm pressure.

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, c (4) a, b, c, d

Q.46 vEyhdr KMnO4 fuEu ds kjk jaxghu gksrk gS : (a) H2O2 (b) uotkr gkbMªkstu

(c) SO3 (d) O3

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) a, b, d (4) a, c, d Q.47 lksfM;e ds ,d mnklhu yo.k (P) dks xeZ djus ij

,d mPpre kkjh; vo'ks"k (Q) ;qä xSl 'A' eqä gksrh gSA xSl 'A' jaxghu] xa/kghu rFkk Ca(OH)2 ds foy;u dks nqf/k;k esa ifjofrZr djrh gSA ;kSfxd :

(a) P, NaHCO3 gS (b) Q, Na2CO3 gS

(c) 'A', CO2 gS (d) 'p', NH4HCO3 gS

(1) a, b, c (2) a, b (3) a, c, d (4) b, c, d Q.48 fuEu esa ls dkSulk izdfr esa nzo fojks/kh gS ?

(a) ftysfVu (b) lYQj (c) LVkpZ (d) izksVhu (1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d Q.49 dk;dsfUnzr ?kuh; tkyd ;qä ,d vk;fud

fØLVyh; ;kSfxd AB ds fy, bdkbZ dksf"Bdk dh dksj yEckbZ a ds :i esa gksrh gS :

(a) A rFkk A ds e/; U;wure nwjh a gS

(b) A rFkk B ds e/; ek/; nwjh 2/a3 gS

(c) fØLVy dk ?kuRo ρ =A

AB3 N

M2a

kjk fn;k tkrk

gS (d) B rFkk B ds e/; U;wure nwjh a/2 gS

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, b, d Q.50 fuEu esa ls dkSuls dFku lgh gSa ? (a) Å"ekxfrdh dk izFke fu;e izØe dh fn'kk Kkr

djus esa ykxw ugha gksrk gS (b) Å"ekskih vfHkfØ;k esa mRiknksa dh dqy ,UFkSYih

vfHkdkjdksa ls vf/kd gksrh gS (c) Å"ek'kks"kh vfHkfØ;k esa mRiknksa dh dqy ,UFkSYih

vfHkdkjdksa ls vf/kd gksrh gS (d) ghjs ds fuekZ.k dh ekud ,UFkSYih 298 K rFkk

1 atm nkc ij 'kwU; gksrh gS (1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, c (4) a, b, c, d


Q.51 Which of the following expressions is/are notcorrect for a solution of sodium acetate in water?

(a) The pH of the solution is given by the

expression pH = 21 pKw +

21 pKa +

21 log c

(b) The degree of hydrolysis of acetate ions is

given by h = ca

wKK

×

(c) The pOH of the solution decreases with increase in the concentration of sodium acetate

(d) The ionization constant of acetate is given by Kb (acetate) = Kw/Ka (acetic acid)

(1) Only a (2) a, b, c (3) b, c, d (4) none of these Q.52 The intermediate(s) formed during the reaction C6H5CH2COOAg + Br2 → 4CCl C6H5CH2Br, is (are) :

(a)

C6H5 CH2 C OBr

O

(b)

C6H5 CH2 C O

O •

(c) C6H5 CH2

•

(d) Br •

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) b, d (4) a, b, c, d Q.53 Which of the following intermediate species

is/are formed in the reaction of acrylic acid with HBr to give β-bromopropanoic acid ?

CH2=CH–COOH →HBr BrCH2–CH2–COOH

(a) CH2=CH–C

OH+

OH

(b) CH2=CH–C OH

+ OH

(c) CH2=CH–+C OH

OH

(d) 2HC+

–CH=C OHOH

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, d (4) a, b, c, d

Q.51 ty esa lksfM;e ,flVSV ds foy;u ds fy, fuEu esa

ls dkSuls O;atd lgh ugha gS@gSa ?

(a) foy;u dh pH O;atd

pH =21 pKw +

21 pKa +

21 log c kjk nh tkrh gS

(b) ,flVSV vk;uksa ds ty vi?kVu dh ek=kk

h = ca

wKK

× kjk nh tkrh gS

(c) foy;u dh pOH lksfM;e ,flVSV dh lkUnzrk

esa of) ds lkFk ?kVrh gS

(d) ,flVSV dk vk;uu fLFkjkad Kb (,flVSV) = Kw/Ka

(,flfVd vEy) kjk fn;k tkrk gS (1) dsoy a (2) a, b, c (3) b, c, d (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha Q.52 fuEu vfHkfØ;k

C6H5CH2COOAg + Br2 → 4CCl C6H5CH2Br,

ds nkSjku fufeZr e/;orhZ gS :

(a) C6H5 CH2 C OBr

O

(b)

C6H5 CH2 C O

O•

(c) C6H5 CH2•

(d) Br•

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) b, d (4) a, b, c, d Q.53 fuEu esa ls dkSulh e/;orhZ Lih'kht ,fØfyd vEy

dh HBr ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k kjk fufeZr gksrh gS rFkkβ-czkseksizksisuksbZd vEy nsrh gS ?

CH2=CH–COOH →HBr BrCH2–CH2–COOH

(a) CH2=CH–COH+

OH

(b) CH2=CH–C OH

+ OH

(c) CH2=CH–+C OH

OH

(d) 2HC+

–CH=C OHOH

(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) a, d (4) a, b, c, d


Q.54 Match the column : Column-I Column-II (Bond angle) (A) NO2 (P) 117.5 (B) ClO2 (Q) 180 (C) CO2 (R) 110 (D) Cl2O (S) 132 A B C D (1) S Q P R (2) P Q R S (3) R Q P S (4) S P Q R Q.55 Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Zero-order (P) Unit of rate constant:

reaction mol–1 L s–1

(B) First-order (Q) Half-life time,

reaction t0.5 = 20]A/[1 k

(C) Second-order (R) Unit of rate of

reaction reaction: mol L–1 s–1

(D) Third-order

reaction

(1) A → P, B → R, C → Q D → Q,R

(2) A → Q, B → P, C → R, D → P

(3) A → R, B → P, C → R, D → P,Q

(4) A → R, B → R, C → P,R, D → Q,R Passage:

A reaction characteristic of vicinal diols is theiroxidative cleavage on treatment with periodicacid (HIO4). The carbon-carbon bond of thevicinal diol unit is broken and two carbonylgroups result. Periodic acid is reduced to iodicacid (HIO3).

R C C R′

R

OH OH

R′

→4HIO C O +

RR

C O + HIO3 + H2OR′

R′

Q.54 LrEHk feyku dhft;s :

LrEHk-I LrEHk-II (ca/k dks.k)

(A) NO2 (P) 117.5 (B) ClO2 (Q) 180 (C) CO2 (R) 110 (D) Cl2O (S) 132 A B C D (1) S Q P R (2) P Q R S (3) R Q P S (4) S P Q R Q.55 LrEHk feyku dhft;s :

LrEHk-I LrEHk-II

(A) 'kwU; dksfV (P) nj fu;rkad dh foek :

vfHkfØ;k mol–1 L s–1

(B) izFke dksfV (Q) v)Z vk;qdky,

vfHkfØ;k t0.5 = 20]A/[1 k

(C) frh; dksfV (R) vfHkfØ;k ds osx dh

vfHkfØ;k bdkbZ : L–1 s–1

(D) rrh; dksfV

vfHkfØ;k

(1) A → P, B → R, C → Q D → Q,R

(2) A → Q, B → P, C → R, D → P

(3) A → R, B → P, C → R, D → P,Q

(4) A → R, B → R, C → P,R, D → Q,R x|ka'k %

fofluy MkbZvkWy dh ,d ykkf.kd vfHkfØ;k ftlesa

budk ijvk;ksfMd vEy (HIO4) ds lkFk fØ;k djkus

ij vkWDlhdkjh fonyu gksrk gSA fofluy MkbZvkWy

bdkbZ ds dkcZu&dkcZu ca/k VwVrs gSa rFkk nks dkckZsfuy

lewg curs gSaaA ijvk;ksfMd vEy] vk;ksfMd vEy

(HIO3) esa vipf;r gksrk gSA

R C C R′

R

OHOH

R′

→4HIO C O +

RR

C O + HIO3 + H2OR′

R′


Q.56 Which of the following compound(s) is/areobtained when the following compound isoxidized by HIO4 ?

CH C CH3

CH3

OH OH

(1)

C H

O

&

CH3 C CH3

O

(2)

C CH3

O

&

CH3 C H

O

(3)

C OH

O

&

CH3 C CH3

O

(4)

C H

O

&

CH3 CH CH3

OH

Q.57 When arabinose

HO C H

CHO

H C OH

H C OH

CH2OH

is oxidized by

HIO4, then formaldehyde and formic acid areobtained. Number of molecules of formic acidand formaldehyde obtained respectively are :

(1) 3, 2 (2) 4, 1 (3) 1, 4 (4) 2, 3 A & R Type Questions : The following questions given below consist of

an Assertion and Reason Type questions. Usethe following Key to choose the appropriateanswer.

(A) If both Assertion & Reason are True &Reason is a correct explanation of theAssertion.

(B) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reasonis not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (D) If both Assertion and Reason are False.

Q.56 fuEu esa ls dkSuls ;kSfxd curs gSa tc fuEu ;kSfxd

HIO4 kjk vkWDlhdr gksrk gS?

CH C CH3

CH3

OH OH

(1)

C H

O

rFkk

CH3 C CH3

O

(2)

C CH3

O

rFkk

CH3 C H

O

(3)

C OH

O

rFkk

CH3 C CH3

O

(4) C H

O

rFkk

CH3 CH CH3

OH

Q.57 tc ,jsfcukst

HO C H

CHO

H C OH

H C OH

CH2OH

] HIO4 kjk

vkWDlhdr gksrk gS] rks QkWeZsfYMgkbM rFkk QkWfeZd

vEy curs gSaA izkIr QkWfeZd vEy rFkk QkWeZsfYMgkbM

ds v.kqvksa dh la[;k Øe'k% gS : (1) 3, 2 (2) 4, 1 (3) 1, 4 (4) 2, 3 dFku ,oa dkj.k izdkj ds iz'u %

uhps fn;s x;s fuEufyf[kr iz'u "dFku" rFkk "dkj.k"

izdkj ds iz'u gSaA vr% mfpr mÙkj dk p;u djus

ds fy;s fuEu rkfydk dk mi;ksx dhft;sA

(A) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa rFkk dkj.k

dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA

(B) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu dkj.k(

dFku dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA

(C) ;fn dFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA

(D) ;fn dFku rFkk dkj.k nksuksa vlR; gSA


Q.58 Assertion : KMnO4 is strong oxidant whereasMn2+ is weaker reductant.

Reason : Stronger is the oxidant weaker is itsconjugate reductant.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.59 Assertion : Ethyl acetate is more reactive than

acetamide towards nucleophilic substitution.

Reason : —OC2H5 is good leaving group than —NH2 group.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Q.60 Arrange the alcohols in order of reactivity

towards HBr.

OH OH

F

OH

F F

OH

F

I II III IV (1) II > III > IV > I (2) I > IV > II > III (3) I > II > III > IV (4) III > II > IV > I

Q.58 dFku : KMnO4, izcy vkWDlhdkjd gS tcfd

Mn2+ nqcZy vipk;d gSA

dkj.k : vkWDlhdkjd izcy gksrk gS tcfd bldk

la;qXeh vipk;d nqcZy gksrk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.59 dFku : ,fFky ,flVsV ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu ds izfr

,flVkekbM ls vf/kd fØ;k'khy gSA

dkj.k: —OC2H5, —NH2 lewg ls vPNk iFkdh

lewg (leaving group) gSA (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Q.60 fuEu ,YdksgkWyksa dks HBr ds izfr fØ;k'khyrk ds Øe

esa O;ofLFkr dhft,

OH OH

F

OH

F F

OH

F

I II III IV (1) II > III > IV > I (2) I > IV > II > III (3) I > II > III > IV (4) III > II > IV > I


BIOLOGY

Q.61 The mycelium is branched and septate, sex organs are absent but reproduce sexually by producing exogenous spores in -

(1) Alternaria (2) Aspergillus (3) Albugo (4) Puff balls Q.62 Plant where sex organs are produced at

the apex of leafy shoot which produce elaborated sporophyte than other groups after fertilization -

(1) Riccia (2) Pisum (3) Polytrichum (4) Marchantia Q.63

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

In figure identify the incorrect match (1) I-Euglena Two

flagella Heterotrophic

(2) II-Paramecium Cilliated Holozoic (3) III-Penecillium Conidia Saprophytic (4) IV-TMV Capsid Obligate

parasite Q.64 Which one of the following is mismatched –

(1) Conjoint collateral closed vascular bundle

– Leaf

(2) Physiological inactive wood

– Heartwood

(3) Well developed annual ring

– Tropical rain forest

(4) Cork cambium – More active in spring

Q.61 dod tky] 'kkf[kr o iVh; gS] tuu vax vuqifLFkr gS fdUrq ySafxd tuu mRiUu cghZtkr chtk.kq ls gksrk gS fdleas -

(1) vYVjusfj;k (2) ,Lijftyl (3) ,Ycwxks (4) iQ ckWYl Q.62 ikni ftlesa ySafxd vax iÙkhnkj izjksg dh pksVh

ij fLFkr gksrs gS tks fu"kspu ds ckn vU; lewgksa

dh viskk vf/kd fodflr chtk.kqn~fHkn cukrs gSA

(1) fjfDl;k (2) ikble

(3) ikWyhVªkbde (4) ekdsZU'kh;k Q.63

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

fp=k esa xyr feyku dh igpku dhft, (1) I-;qXyhuk nks d'kkHk ijiks"kh (2) II-isjkehf'k;e iekHk tUrqleHkksth (3) III-isfuflfy;e dksfufM;k eriks"kh (4) IV-TMV dsIlhM vfodYih

ijiks"kh

Q.64 fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d xyr lqesfyr gS – (1) la;qDr] laik'ohZ; cUn

laogu iwy

– i.kZ

(2) dkf;Zdh; fu"Øh;

dk"B

– vUr% dk"B

(3) lqfodflr okf"kZd

oy;

– m".kdfVcU/kh;

o"kkZ ou (4) dkx ,/kk – clUr esa vf/kd

lfØ;


Q.65 Different plant structure and their two charactertic features are given in table. Which of the following structure is correctly matched with their features –

Plant structure Characteristic feature

(A) Endarch protoxylem (1) Dicot Stem (B) Absence of cambium

(A)

Scattered vascular bundle

(2) Monocot stem

(B) Well differentiated ground tissue

(A) Mesophyll is differentiated in palisade tissue and spongy tissue

(3) Dicot leaf

(B) Isobilateral leaf

(A) Mesophyll undifferentiated

(4) Monocot leaf

(B) Isobilateral leaf

Q.66 What is correct regarding the figure given

below -

(A) This figure is showing dorsiventral leaf

present in monocot (B) Parenchymatous bundle sheath is present in

it (C) Bundle sheath cells generally contain

chloroplast in this type of leaf (D) Leaf is hypostamatic (1) Only D (2) B & D (3) Only A (4) A, B & D

Q.65 fofHkUu ikni lajpuk,sa ,oa muds vfHkykkf.kd

yk.k rkfydk esa fn;s x;s gS fuEu esa ls dkSulh

lajpuk muds yk.kksa ds lkFk lgh lqesfyr gS –

ikni lajpuk Ykkkf.kd yk.k

(A) vUrjvkfn nk:d

izksVkstkbye

(1) fchti=kh

LrEHk

(B) ,/kk dh vuqifLFkrh

(A)

fc[kjs gq;s laogu iwy (2) ,dchti=kh

LrEHk (B) lqfoHksfnr Hkj.k mÙkd

(A) e/;ksÙkd] [kEHk mÙkd o

Liat mÙkd esa foHksfnr

gksrk gSA

(3) fchti=kh

i.kZ

(B) Lkefik'oZ i.kZ

(A) vfoHksfnr e/;ksÙkd (4) ,d

chti=kh

i.kZ

(B) lefik'oZ i.kZ

Q.66 fn;s x;s fp=k ds lUnHkZ esa D;k lgh gS -

(A) ;g fp=k ,d chti=kh eas mifLFkr i"Bk/kkjh i.kZ

n'kkZ jgk gSA

(B) blesa enqÙkdh; iwykPNn mifLFkr gksrk gSA

(C) bl izdkj dh i.kZ esa lkekU;r% iwykPNn

dksf'kdk,sa gfjryod j[krh gSA

(D) i.kZ v/kksjU/kzh gksrh gS

(1) dsoy D (2) B ,oa D

(3) dsoy A (4) A, B ,oa D


Q.67 Which of the following figure is correctly matched with its example

Figure Example

A.

Alstonia

B.

Guava

C.

Gulmohar

D.

Mango

(1) A & C (2) A, B & C (3) B & C (4) B & D

Q.68 Identify enzymes a, b, c and d in digestion of carbohydrates -

StarchA

Maltose Lactose Sucrose

B C D

Galactose Glucose Fructose

Q.67 fuEu esa ls dkSulk fp=k blds mnkgj.k ds lkFk

lgh lqesfyr gS fp=k mnkgj.k

A.

,yLVksfu;k

B.

ve:n

C.

xqyeksgj

D.

vke

(1) A & C (2) A, B & C (3) B & C (4) B & D

Q.68 dkcksZgkbMªsV ds ikpu esa ,Utkbe a, b, c o d dks

igpkus - LVkpZ

A

ekYVksl ysDVksl lqØkst B C D

xsysDVksl Xyqdksl ÝDVksl


(1) A - Amylase, B - Invertase, C - Maltase,

D - Lactase

(2) A - Amylase, B - Lactase, C - Maltase,

D - Invertase

(3) A - Amylase, B - Maltase, C - Lactase,

D – Invertase

(4) A - Amylase, B - Maltase, C - Invertase,

D –Lactase

Q.69 Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Testis and ovary function as a primary sex

organ as well as endocrine gland

(2) Ovaries are located in thoracic cavity of

females

(3) Ovary produces ovum and 2 groups of

steroid hormones (estrogen and

progesteron)

(4) Ovary is composed of ovarian follicles and

stromal tissue

Q.70 The accompanying diagram shown the

structure of neuron. Identify A to E

(1) A - ,ek;yst, B - buoVsZt , C - ekYVst,

D - ysDVst

(2) A - ,ek;yst, B - ysDVst, C - ekYVst,

D - buoVsZt

(3) A - ,ek;yst, B - ekYVst, C - ysDVst,

D - buoVsZt

(4) A - ,ek;yst, B - ekYVst, C - buoVsZt,

D - ysDVst

Q.69 fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS ?

(1) o"k.k o v.Mk'k;] vUr% L=kkoh xzfUFk gS lkFk gh

izkFkfed tuu vax dh rjg dk;Z djrs gSA

(2) eknk dh okh; xqgk esa v.Mk'k; fLFkr gksrs gSA

(3) v.Mk'k;] v.Mk.kq rFkk LVhjkWbM gkeksZu

¼bLVªkstu rFkk izkstsLVhjkWu½ ds 2 leqg mRiUu

djrs gSA

(4) v.Mk'k;] LVªksey mÙkd o v.Mk'k;h iqfVdkvksa

ls fufeZr gksrs gSA

Q.70 lEcfU/kr fp=k] U;wjksu dh lajpuk dks n'kkZrk gS A

ls E rd igpkus


A B C D E

(1) Nerve fibre Cyton or cell body

Schwann cell

Node of Ranvier

Synaptic knob

(2) Dendrites Cyton or cell body

Schwann cell

Node of Ranvier

Synaptic knob

(3) Dendrites Nerve Cell Schwann cell

Node of Ranvier

Synaptic knob

(4) Dendrites Cyton or cell body Nerve Cell Node of

RanvierSynaptic

knob

Q.71 I. Number of mitchondria less. II. Number of mitochondria more III. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is abundant IV. Myoglobin content high V. Sarcoplasmic reticulum moderate VI. Aerobic muscles VII. Depend on anaerobic respiration for

energy VIII. Less myglobin A. Red muscles B. White muscles Identify above (I to VII) traits as characteristic

of A and B types of muscles – (1) A – I, II, VII, VIII; B – II, IV, V, VI (2) A – II, IV, V, VI; B – I, III, VII, VIII (3) A – I, III, IV, VII; B – II, V, VI, VII (4) A – II, V, VI, VIII; B – I, III, IV, VII

Q.72 Match column I with Column II – Column-I Column-II A. Gastrin I. Acts on gastric gland

and stimulates secretion of HCl and pepsinogen

B. Secretin II. Acts on the exocrine part of pancreas and stimulates secretion of water and HCO3

–ions C. CCK III. Acts on gall bladder

and stimulates the secretion of bile juice

D. GIP IV. Inhibits gastric secretion and motility

A B C D E

(1) raf=kdk rUrqlkbVksu vFkok

dksf'kdk dk;

'oku

dksf'kdk

jsufo;j dh

ioZlaf/k

flusIVhd

?kq.Mh

(2) MªsUMªkbVlkbVksu vFkok

dksf'kdk dk;

'oku

dksf'kdk

jsufo;j dh

ioZlaf/k

flusIVhd

?kq.Mh

(3) MªsUMªkbVraf=kdk

dksf'kdk

'oku

dksf'kdk

jsufo;j dh

ioZlaf/k

flusIVhd

?kq.Mh

(4) MªsUMªkbVlk;Vksu vFkok

dksf'kdk dk;

raf=kdk

dksf'kdk

jsufo;j dh

ioZlaf/k

flusIVhd

?kq.Mh

Q.71 I. ekbVksdkWfUMª;k dh la[;k de II. ekbVksdkWfUMª;k dh la[;k vf/kd III. lkdksZIykfTed jsfVdqye izpwj IV. ek;ksXyksfcu ?kVd mPp V. lkdksZIykfTed jsfVdqye e/;e VI. ok;oh; isf'k;k¡ VII. ÅtkZ ds fy, vok;oh; 'olu ij fuHkZj VIII. de ek;ksXyksfcu A. yky isf'k;k¡ B. 'osr isf'k;k¡ isf'k;ks ds A o B izdkj ds vfHkyk.kksa ds :i esa (I

ls VII rd) mijksDr yk.kksa dks igpkus – (1) A – I, II, VII, VIII; B – II, IV, V, VI (2) A – II, IV, V, VI; B – I, III, VII, VIII (3) A – I, III, IV, VII; B – II, V, VI, VII (4) A – II, V, VI, VIII; B – I, III, IV, VII

Q.72 LrEHk I dks LrEHk II ds lkFk lqesfyr dhft, – LrEHk-I LrEHk-II A. xsLVªhu I. tBj xzfUFk ij dk;Z djrk gS

rFkk isIlhukstu o HCl ds L=kko.k dks mn~nhIr djrk gSA

B. lsØfVu II. vXuk'k; ds cká L=kkoh Hkkx ij dk;Z djrk gS rFkk HCO3

– vk;uksa o ty ds L=kko.k dks mn~nhIr djrk gSA

C. CCK III. fiÙkk'k; ij dk;Z djrk RkFkk fiÙk jl ds L=kko.k dks mn~nhIr djrs gS

D. GIP IV. vkgjuky xfr o tBj

L=kko.k dks lanfer djrk gSA


(1) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I (2) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I (3) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV (4) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV Q.73 Which of the following is correct about the

blood vascular system of earthworm - (1) It is differentiated in first thirteen segments

as regards to number, arrangement and nature of blood vessel

(2) Small blood vessels supply the gut, nerve cord and the body wall

(3) Respiratory exchange occurs through moist body surface into blood stream

(4) 1, 2 & 3 all Q.74 The above figure shown germ layers, the

animals having such structure shown are –

(1) Aurelia, Hydra (2) Aurelia, Taenia (3) Taenia, Fasciola (4) Hydra, Fasciola

Q.75 A. Swan necked flask experiment was done by Pasteur

B. Life originated from pre-existing life is referred as biogenesis theory

C. Father Suarez was the one of the greatest advocates of theory of special creation.

D. Modern theory of origin of life was propounded by AI Oparin

Which statement are correct - (1) ABCD (2) ABC (3) BCD (4) ABD Q.76 A. Aereolar and adipose tissues are the

examples of loose connective tissue. B. Cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a

semifluid round substance. C. Aereolar tissue connects skin with muscles D. Often aereolar tissue serves as a support

framework for epithelium Which of the above statements is correct w.r.t.

loose connective tissue - (1) BCD (2) ACD (3) BD (4) ABCD

(1) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I (2) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I (3) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV (4) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV Q.73 fuEu esa ls dkSulk dSapq, ds :f/kj laogu rU=k ds

ckjs esa lgh gS - (1) jDr okfguh dh la[;k] foU;kl o izdfr ds

vk/kkj ij izFke rsjg [k.Mksa esa foHksfnr gksrk gSA

(2) y?kq jDr okfgdk,sa] vka=k rafU=kdkjTtw o nsgfHkfÙk dks vkiwfrZ djrh gSA

(3) 'oluh; fofue; ue nsg lrg ls jDr /kkjk esa gksrk gSA

(4) 1, 2 o 3 lgh

Q.74 mijksDr fp=k tuu Lrjksa dks n'kkZrk gSA tUrq ftuesa fuEu lajpuk,¡ gksrh gS og gS &

(1) vkWjsfy;k] gkbMªk (2) vkjsfy;k] Vhfu;k (3) Vhfu;k] Qsflvksyk (4) gkbMªk] QSflyksyk

Q.75 A. Loku xzhok ¶ykLd iz;ksx] ik'pj kjk fd;k x;k FkkA

B. thou] iwoZorhZ thou ls mRiUUk gqvk gS bls thokrtuu fl)kUr dgrs gSA

C. Qknj lqvktZ fof'k"V mRifÙk fl)kUr ds ,d egku leZFkd FksA

D. thou dh mRifÙk ds vk/kqfud fl)kUr dk izfriknu ,-vkbZ- vkisjkWu ds kjk fd;k x;k FkkA

dkSuls dFku lR; gS - (1) ABCD (2) ABC (3) BCD (4) ABD

Q.76 A. ok;oh; o olh; mÙkd] <hys la;ksth mÙkd ds mnkgj.k gSA

B. dksf'kdk,sa o rUrq] v)Zrjy Hkj.k inkFkZ esa <hys :i ls O;ofLFkr gksrs gSA

C. ok;oh; mÙkd isf'k;ksa dks Ropk ls tksM+rs gSA D. izk;% ok;oh; mÙkd midyk ds fy, voyEcu

<k¡ps dh rjg dk;Z djrs gSA mijksDr esa ls dkSulk dFku <hys la;ksth mÙkdksa ds

lUnHkZ esa lgh gS - (1) BCD (2) ACD (3) BD (4) ABCD


Q.77 Match the column – Column-I Column-II A Dry cornified skin

with single oil gland

I Psittacula

B Three chambered heart

II Testeudo

C Oviparous, Internal fertilization

III Bufo

D Statocyst IV Pleurobrachia V Aptenodytes

Which is a correct match (1) A-I, II, V (2) B-II, III, IV (3) C-I, II, V (4) D-IV, V The first mammals were like shrews. Their

fossils are small sized. Mammals were viviparous and protected their unborn young inside the mother’s body. Mammals were more intelligent in sensing and avoiding danger at least. When reptiles came down mammals took over this earth.

Q.78 Mammals are believed to have evolved from - (1) Synapsid therapsid reptiles (2) Sauropsid thecodont reptiles (3) Synapsid thecodont reptiles (4) Sauropsid therapsid reptiles Q.79 A person met an accident, was unable to move

his right hand normally. Doctors found nerve and blood supply normal. He is likely to have got injured his -

(1) Ligaments (2) Tendons (3) Cartilages (4) Bones Q.80 Match the names of the diseases given under

column-I with the name of the causal agents gives under column-II; choose the answer which givens the correct matching of the alphabets of the two column :

Column-I (Diseases)

Column-II (Causal agent)

A. AIDS 1. Yersinia pestis B. Syphilis 2. Hepatitis B virus C. Viral Jaundice 3. Treponema pallidum D. Gonorrhoea 4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

5. HIV

Q.77 LRkEHkks dk feyku dhft, – LrEHk-I LrEHk-II A ,dy rsy xzfUFk

;qDr 'kq"d 'kYdhdr

Ropk

I flVsD;wyk

B f=k&dkh; ân; II VsLVs;wMks C v.Miztd] vkUrfjd

fu"kspu III C;wQks

D LVsVksflLV IV IY;wjksczsfd;k V ,iVsuksMkbVl

dkSulk lgh feyku gS (1) A-I, II, V (2) B-II, III, IV (3) C-I, II, V (4) D-IV, V igys Lru/kkjh izk.kh Jw ¼eatks:½ Fks blds thok'e

¼Qksfly½ NksVs vkdkj ds gSaA Lruèkkjh izk.kh tjk;qt gksrs gSa rFkk muds vtUes f'k'kq ek¡ ds 'kjhj ds vanj ¼xHkZ esa½ lqjfkr jgrs gSaA Lru/kkjh izk.kh NksVs ls NksVs [krjksa ds izfr lrdZ jgus ,oa cpko djus esa cqf)eku gksrs FksA tc ljhliksa dh deh gqbZ] rc Lru/kkjh izkf.k;ksa us LFky ij dCtk dj fy;kA

Q.78 ;g Lru/kkjh fuEu ls mn~fodflr ekus tkrs gS - (1) fluSIlhM FkSjsIlhM ljhli (2) lksjksIlhM FkhdksMksUV ljhli (3) fluSIlhM FkhdksMksUV ljhli (4) lksjksIlhM FkSjsIlhM ljhli Q.79 ,d O;fDr nq?kZVukxzLr gqvk] og lkekU; :Ik ls vius

nkfgus gkFk dks fgykus esa vleFkZ FkkA fpfdRldksa us ns[kk rfU=kdk,¡ o jDr vkiwrhZ lkekU; gSA mlesa fdlds ?kk;y gksus dh laHkkouk gS &

(1) Luk;q (2) daMjk,s (3) mikfLFk;k¡ (4) vfLFk;k¡

Q.80 LrEHk-I ds vUrZxr fn;s x;s jksxks ds uke dks LrEHk-II ds vUrZxr fn;s x;s jksx dkjdks ds lkFk lqesfyr dhft, mÙkj dk p;u dhft, tks fd nksuksa LrEHkksa ds vkjks ds lgh feyku ls fn;k x;k gS &

LrEHk-I (jksx)

LrEHk-II (jksx dkjd)

A. AIDS 1. ;jflfu;k isfLVl B. flfQfyl 2. gsisVkbfVl B ok;jl

C. okbjy ihfy;k 3. fVªiksuhek isfyMe D. xksuksfj;k 4. ukblsfj;k xksuksfj;k

5. HIV


Codes : A B C D (1) 5 2 3 4 (2) 5 3 2 4 (3) 5 2 1 4 (4) 5 1 2 4 Q.81 Which of the following pairs is/are correctly

matched ? (i) E. coli– Circular DNA (ii) Tobacco mosaic virus – Single stranded RNA (iii) Reovirus – Double stranded RNA Select the correct answer using the codes given

below : Codes : (1) (i) alone (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iii)

Q.82 Consider the following statements about retrovirus

(i) it have an enzyme located inside its coat (ii) in it, the newly formed DNA becomes a

part of the host cell chromosome (iii) It has a double stranded RNA (iv) Some of these genes are highly oncogenic. Of these statement - (1) ii, iii and iv are correct (2) i, iii and iv are correct (3) i, ii and iv are correct (4) i, ii and iii are correct Q.83 Match the following -

Column-I Column-II A. Remendelism 1. Co-dominance B. Coat colour in

cattles 2. Correns

C. Dihybrid cross 3. Multiple allele D. Blood group 4. Law of

independent assortment

Choose the correct option : A B C D (1) 1 2 3 4 (2) 4 3 2 1 (3) 2 1 4 3 (4) 2 1 3 4

Codes : A B C D (1) 5 2 3 4 (2) 5 3 2 4 (3) 5 2 1 4 (4) 5 1 2 4 Q.81 fuEu esa ls dkSulk@dkSuls ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gS \ (i) E. dksykbZ– orqZy DNA (ii) rEckdq ekstsd ok;jl– ,dy jTtqdh RNA (iii) fj;ksok;jl– fjTtqdh RNA uhps fn;s dwVks dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s lgh mÙkj dk

p;u dhft, : Codes : (1) dsoy (i) (2) (i), (ii) ,oa (iii) (3) (i) ,oa (iii) (4) (ii) ,oa (iii)

Q.82 jsVªksok;jl ds ckjs fuEu dFkuks ij fopkj dhft, & (i) blesa ,Utkbe blds pksy ds Hkhrj fLFkr gksrk gS

(ii) blesa uohu fufeZr DNA, ijiks"kh dksf'kdk ds

xq.klw=k dk Hkkx cu tkrk gS (iii). blesa fjTtqdh RNA gksrk gS (iv) buesa ls dqN thu vksUdkstsfud gksrs gSA mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls & (1) ii, iii ,oa iv lgh gS (2) i, iii ,oa iv lgh gS (3) i, ii ,oa iv lgh gS (4) i, ii ,oa iii lgh gS

Q.83 fuEu dks lqesfyr dhft, LrEHk-I LrEHk-II

A. iquZesUMyokn 1. lg&izHkkoh B. pkSik;ks esa pksy dk

jax 2. dksjsUl

C. fladj ladj.k 3. cgq,yhy

D. jDr lewg 4. LorU=k viO;wgu

dk fu;e

lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,: A B C D (1) 1 2 3 4 (2) 4 3 2 1 (3) 2 1 4 3 (4) 2 1 3 4


Q.84 Match the items given in Column-I with those listed in column-II. Choose the answer with correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.

Column-I (Characters)

Column-II (Genotypes)

A. Monohybrid cross 1. T and t B. Test cross 2. TT C. Alleles 3. Tt × Tt D. Homozygous tall 4. tt

5. Tt × tt Choose the correct option : A B C D (1) 3 5 4 2 (2) 5 3 2 4 (3) 3 5 1 2 (4) 3 1 5 2 Q.85 The most commonly used marker enzyme in

clinical diagnosis of prostrate cancer is - (1) Amylase (2) Alkaline phosphatase (3) ATpase (4) Acid phosphatase Q.86 Liver necrosis and muscular dystrophy are

caused by the lack of this trace element : (1) Arsenic (2) Molybdenum (3) Zinc (4) Seleneium Q.87 Widal test is used for the diagnosis of - (1) Malaria (2) Pneumonia (3) Tuberculosis (4) Typhoid Q.88 The permissible use of the technique

amniocentesis is for - (1) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus (2) Artificial insemination (3) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a

surrogatge mother (4) Detecting any genetic abnormality

Q.84 LrEHk-I esa fn;s x;s vo;oks dks LrEHk-II esa

rkfydkc) ds lkFk lqesfyr dhft,] nksuksa LrEHkksa ds

vkjks ds lgh la;kstu ds lkFk mÙkj dk p;u

dhft,A

LrEHk-I

(Characters)

LrEHk-II

(Genotypes)

A. ,d ladj ladj.k 1. T o t

B. ijhk.k ladj.k 2. TT

C. ;qXe fodYih 3. Tt × Tt

D. le;qXeuth yEcs 4. tt 5. Tt × tt

lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft, %

A B C D (1) 3 5 4 2 (2) 5 3 2 4 (3) 3 5 1 2 (4) 3 1 5 2

Q.85 izksLVsªV dSUlj ds fpfdRlh; mipkj esa iz;qDr lcls

lkekU; ekdZj ,Utkbe gS & (1) ,ekbyst (2) kkjh; QkWLQsVst (3) ATpase (4) vEyh; QkWLQsVst Q.86 ;dr usØksfll o is'kh; fMLVªksQh fuEu Vªsl rRo dh

deh ds dkj.k gksrs gS % (1) vklsZfud (2) eksyCMsue (3) ftUd (4) lsysfu;e Q.87 okbZMy ijhk.k fdldh tk¡p ds fy, mi;ksx gksrk gS & (1) eysfj;k (2) U;weksfu;k (3) V;qcjDyksfll (4) VkbQkbM

Q.88 ,sfEu;ks lsUVsfll rduhd dk vf/kdr mi;ksx fuEu

ds fy, gksrk gS & (1) vtfUer xHkZ dk fyax irk yxkus ds fy, (2) df=ke lspu ds fy, (3) lsjksxsV ek¡ ds xHkkZ'k; esa Hkwz.k ds LFkkukUrj.k ds

fy, (4) vkuqokaf'kd vlkekU;rk% dk irk yxkus ds fy,


Q.89 Who established the scientific basis of vaccination ?

(1) c. Milstein (2) E. Jenner (3) G. Kohler (4) L. Pasteur

Q.90 Hybridomas are emplyed for - (1) Killing cancer cells (2) Production of somatic hyrbids (3) Synthesis of antibiotics (4) Synthesis of monoclonal antibodies

Q.91 This structure is related to -

(1) cannabionoid (2) morphine (3) L.S.D. (4) Benzodiazipines

Q.92 What we get by acetylation of this chemical ? (1) Cannabis acetylum (2) Smack (3) Cocaine (4) All the above

Q.93 Identify A, B, C, D in the given diagram of E. Coli cloning vector pBR 322

Cla I Hln d III

pvu I

psl I

pvu II

B

Sol I

A

C

D

letR

rop pBR 322

A B C D (1) Hindi I EcoRI ampR ori (2) Hind I BamH I KanR ampR (3) BamH I Pst I ori ampR (4) EcoR I BamH I ampR ori

Q.94 A transgene expression can achieve which of the following

(1) Prevent expression of a native gene (2) Modify an existing biosynthetic pathway (3) Produce a protein that itself produces the

phenotype of interest (4) All of the above

Q.89 Vhdkdj.k dk oSKkfud vk/kkj fdlus LFkkfir fd;k Fkk ?

(1) lh. feyfLVu (2) bZ. tsuj (3) th. dksgyj (4) ,y. ik'pj

Q.90 gk;fczMekl iz;qDr gksrk gS & (1) dsUlj dksf'kdkvksa dks ekjus ds fy, (2) dkf;d ladj ds mRiknu ds fy, (3) izfrtSfod ds la'ys"k.k ds fy, (4) eksuksDyksuy ,UVhckWMh ds la'ys"k.k ds fy,

Q.91 ;g lajpuk fdlls lEcfU/kr gS &

(1) dsuk fcuksbM (2) ekfQZu (3) L.S.D. (4) csUtksMkbZ,ftfiUl

Q.92 bl jlk;u ds ,flfVyhdj.k ds kjk D;k izkIr gksrk gS& (1) dsukfcy ,flVkbye (2) LeSd (3) dksfdu (4) mijksDr lHkh Q.93 E dksykbZ Dyksfux okgd pBR 322 ds fn;s x;s fp=k

esa A, B, C, D dh igpku dhft, Cla I Hln d III

pvu I

psl I

pvu II

B

Sol I

A

C

D

letR

rop pBR 322

A B C D (1) Hindi I EcoRI ampR ori (2) Hind I BamH I KanR ampR (3) BamH I Pst I ori ampR (4) EcoR I BamH I ampR ori

Q.94 fuEu esa ls dkSulk ijkthu vfHkO;fDr izkIr dj ldrk gS

(1) usfVo thu dh vfHkO;fDr dks jksduk (2) tSo la'ys"kh iFk dk vfLrRo o :ikUrj.k (3) izksVhu mRiUu djrk gS tks fd ,sfPNd yk.k

iz:i mRiUu djrk gS (4) mijksDr lHkh


Q.95 Which of the following factors favour the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in lungs ?

(1) PO2 = ↓, PCO2 = ↑, H+ = ↑, Temperature = ↑ (2) PO2 = ↑, PCO2 = ↑, H+ = ↓, Temperature = ↑ (3) PO2 = ↑, PCO2 = ↓, pH = ↑, Temperature = ↓ (4) PO2 = ↓, PCO2 = ↑, pH = ↑, Temperature = ↓

Q.96 In an open circulatory system- (1) there is no heart (2) there is no need of blood vessels (3) there is no distinction between blood and

tissue fluid (4) there are no open spaces or sinuses in the body Q.97 Urine formation involves- (1) Ultrafiltration and reabsorption occurring in

different parts of nephron (2) Ultrafiltration and reabsoption occurring in

same part of nephon (3) Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and secretion

occurring in different parts of nephron (4) Ultrafiltration, reabsorption and secretion

occurring in same part of nephron Q.98 I. Reabsorption in this region is minimum. II This region plays a significant role in the

maintenance of high osmolarity of intestinal fluid

III Its descending limb is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes

IV Its ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolyte actively or passively

The above characteristics are in association with

(1) PCT (2) Loop of Henle (3) DCT (4) Bowman's capsule Q.99 Pick up the correct match

A. False ribs I. 1st to 7th pair B. True ribs II. 11th and 12th pair C. Floating ribs III. 8th to 12th ribs D. Sternum IV. One

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Q.95 fuEu esa ls dkSuls dkjd] Qq¶Ql esa vkWDlhgheksXyksfcu ds fuekZ.k dk leFkZu djrs gS \

(1) PO2 = ↓, PCO2 = ↑, H+ = ↑, rkieku = ↑ (2) PO2 = ↑, PCO2 = ↑, H+ = ↓, rkieku = ↑ (3) PO2 = ↑, PCO2 = ↓, pH = ↑, rkieku = ↓ (4) PO2 = ↓, PCO2 = ↑, pH = ↑, rkieku = ↓

Q.96 [kqys ifjlapj.k rU=k esa & (1) ân; ugha gksrk gS (2) jDr okfgdkvksa dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS

(3) mÙkd rjy o jDr ds e/; foHksnu ugha gksrk gS (4) 'kjhj esa xqgk,s o [kqys LFky ugha gksrs gS Q.97 eq=k fuekZ.k esa lfEefyr gS & (1) usÝksu ds fofHkUu Hkkxks esa gksus okyk ijkfuL;Unu

o iquZvo'kks"k.k (2) usÝksu ds leku Hkkxks esa gksus okyk ijkfuL;Unu

o iquZvo'kks"k.k (3) usÝksu ds fofHkUu Hkkxks esa gksus okyk ijkfuL;Unu]

iquZvo'kks"k.k o L=kko.k (4) usÝksu ds leku Hkkxks esa gksus okyk ijkfuL;Unu]

iquZvo'kks"k.k o L=kko.k Q.98 I. bl ks=k esa iquZvo'kks"k.k U;wure gksrk gS & II ;g ks=k vkU=kh; nzO; dh mPp ijklj.krk dks

cuk;s j[kus esa egRoiw.kZ Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gS III bldh vojksgh Hkqtk ty ds izfr ikjxE; gksrh gS fdUrq

yxHkx bysDVªksykbVl ds izfr vikjxE; gksrh gS IV bldh vkjksgh Hkqtk ty ds izfr vikjxE; gksrh

gS fdUrq lfØ; vFkok fuf"Ø; :i ls

bysDVªksykbV dk ifjogu gksus nsrh gS mijksDr yk.k fdlls lEcfU/kr gS & (1) PCT (2) gsUys ds ik'k (3) DCT (4) cksmeu lEiqV Q.99 lgh feyku dks iFkd dhft, %

A. vlR; ilfy;k I. 1st ls 7th ;qXe B. lR; ilfy;k II. 11th o12th ;qXe C. rSjkdh ilfy;k III. 8th ls 12th ilfy;k D. mjksfLFk IV. ,d

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV


Q.100 The accompanying diagram is a male reproductive system.

AB

CD

Which of the following statements are correct ? I. D produces sperms but not testosterone. II. D produces testosterone but not sperms. III. D produces sperms and testosterone IV. A secretes a liquid rich in fructose and

prostaglandins. (1) I and II (2) III and IV (3) All (4) None

Q.101 Which of the following does NOT occur during implantation ?

(1) The embryo secretes enzymes that digest away part of the endometrium

(2) The embryo is drawn into the endometrium and becomes surrounded by it

(3) The embryo form finger-like projections that burrow into the uterine wall

(4) The embryo develops into 3 germ layers with a fluid-filled interior

Q.102 What is the full form of IUDs ? (1) Inter Uterine Devices (2) Intra Uterine Diseases (3) Intra Uterine Devices (4) Inter Uterine diseases

Q.103 Sedative differ from tranquillizers in (1) sedatives induces sleep while tranquillizers

do not do so (2) sedatives depress brain activity while

tranquillizers activate brain functioning (3) sedatives are strong tranquillizers (4) sedatives cause addiction while

tranquillizers do not produce such an effect

Q.100 lEcfU/kr fp=k uj tuu rU=k dk gS &

AB

CD

fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lR; gS \ I. D 'kqØk.kq mRiUu djrk gS fdUrq VsLVksLVhjkWu ugha II. D VsLVksLVhjkWu mRiUu djrk gS fdUrq 'kqØk.kq ugha III. D 'kqØk.kq o VsLVksLVhjkWu mRiUu djrk gS IV. A ÝDVksl o izksLVsXysfMUl esa izpqj] rjy L=kkfor

djrk gS & (1) I o II (2) III o IV (3) lHkh (4) dksbZ ugha Q.101 vkjksi.k ds nkSjku fuEu esa dkSulk ugha gksrk gS \ (1) Hkwz.k] ,Utkbe dk L=kko.k djrk gS tks fd

,.MksesfVª;e ds Hkkx dk ikpu djrs gS (2) Hkwz.k] ,.MksesfVª;e esa /k¡l tkrk gS rFkk blds

kjk f?kj tkrk gS (3) Hkwz.k vaxqyh ln'; izo/kZ fufeZr djrk gS tks fd

xHkkZ'k; fHkÙkh esa /k¡l tkrs gS (4) Hkwz.k] vkUrfjd nzO; ls Hkjs gq, rhu tuu Lrjksa

esa fodflr gksrk gS

Q.102 IUDs dk iwjk uke D;k gS ? (1) Inter Uterine Device (2) Intra Uterine Diseases (3) Intra Uterine Devices (4) Inter Uterine diseases

Q.103 'kked] VªkUdqykbtj ls fHkUu gS fdlesa & (1) 'kked] uhan dks izsfjr djrs gS tcfd VªkUdqykbtj ugha (2) 'kked efLr"d fØ;kvksa dka lanfer djrs gS

tcfd VªkUdqykbtj efLr"dh; dk;ksZ dks lfØ; djrs gS

(3) 'kked izcy VªkUdqykbtj gksrs gS (4) 'kked ds dkj.k O;lu gksrk gS tcfd

VªkUdqykbtj ,slk dksbZ izHkko mRiUu ugha djrs


Q.104 The common sources of single cell protein are (1) yeasts (2) bacteria (3) other fungi (4) All of these

Q.105 The technology of biogas production in India has been developed by the efforts of

(A) Khadi and village industries commission (KVIC) (B) Indian council of Agricultural research (ICAR) (C) Indian Agricultural Research institute IARI) (D) Indian council of medical research (ICMR) (1) A, C, D (2) C, D (3) A, C (4) A, B

Q.106 Column-I Column-II I Saccharomyces A Bacteria II Trichodema B Cyanobacteria III Lactobacillus C Fungi IV Nostoc D Yeast

Which of the combination is correct ? I II III IV (1) D C A B (2) C D A B (3) A B C D (4) D B A C

Q.107 Three critical research areas of biotechnology are-

I Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved organism usually a microbe or pure enzyme

II Multiple ovulation transfer technology (MOET)

III Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act.

IV Downstream processing technologies (1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, III, IV (3) I, II (4) II and IV Q.108 Which of the following statements about

enzymes are true ? I. Enzymes do not alter the overall change in

free energy for a reaction II. Enzymes are proteins whose three

dimensional shape is key to their functions III. Enzyes speed up reaction by lowering

activation energy IV. Enzyme are highly specific for reactions V. All the enzymes show allosteric modulation VI. The energy input needed to start a chemical

reaction is called activation energy (1) All (2) All except V (3) V and VI (4) II and IV

Q.104 ,dy dksf'kdk izksVhu dk eq[; L=kksr gS & (1) ;hLV (2) thok.kq (3) vU; dkjd (4) mijksDr lHkh

Q.105 fdlds iz;klks ds kjk Hkkjr esa ck;ksxSl mRiknu dh rdfudh fodflr fd xbZ

(A) [kkMh ,oa xzkeh.k vkS|ksfxd deh'ku (KVIC) (B) Hkkjrh; df"k vuqla/kku ifj"kn~ (ICAR) (C) Hkkjrh; df"k vuqla/kku laLFkku (IARI) (D) Hkkjrh; fpfdRlk vuqla/kku ifj"kn~ (ICMR) (1) A, C, D (2) C, D (3) A, C (4) A, B

Q.106

LrEHk-I LrEHk-II I lsdsjksek;lht A thok.kq II VªkbdksMekZ B lk;uksthok.kq III ysDVhcsflyl C dod IV ukWLVkd D ;hLV

dkSulk la;kstu lgh gS ? I II III IV (1) D C A B (2) C D A B (3) A B C D (4) D B A C

Q.107 tSo izks|ksfxdh ds rhu ØkfUrd vuqla/kku ks=k gS & I fodflr thoks dh voLFkk esa Js"B mRizsjd

miyC/k djokuk] izk;% lqe tho o 'kq) ,Utkbe II xq.ku v.MksRltZu LFkkukUrj.k rduhd

(MOET) III mRizsjd dh fØ;k ds fy, vfHk;kfU=kdh ls pje

voLFkk;s mRiUu djuk IV vuqizokg lalk/ku rduhd dh izfØ;k,s (1) I, II, III, IV (2) I, III, IV (3) I, II (4) II rFkk IV

Q.108 fuEu esa ls dkSuls dFku ,Utkbe ds ckjs esa lR; gS ? I. vfHkfØ;k dh eqDr ÅtkZ esa ,Utkbe iw.kZ

ifjorZu ugha djrs gS II. ,Utkbe izksVhu gS ftudk f=kfofe; vkdkj gksrk

gS tks muds dk;ksZ ds fy, dqath gS III. ,Utkbe] lafØ;.k ÅtkZ dks ?kVkdj vfHkfØ;k

dh nj c<+krs gS IV. ,Utkbe fØ;k ds fy, vfrfof'k"V gksrs gS V. leLr ,Utkbe ,yksLVsfjd ekMw;wys'ku n'kkZrs gS VI. jklk;fud fØ;k dks 'kq: djus ds fy, tks

ÅtkZ vko';d gksrh gS og lfØ;.k ÅtkZ dgykrh gS

(1) lHkh (2) lHkh] V ds vfrfjDr (3) V rFkk VI (4) II o IV


Q.109 Which of the following is incorrect about the chromatids ?

(1) They are replicated chromosomes still joined together at the centromere

(2) Both the chromatids are genetically identical in a mitotic chromosome

(3) Both the sister chromatids of a chromosome separate in meiosis - I

(4) Chromatids replicate in S-shape of cell cycle

Q.110 If the DNA content of a cell undergoing meiosis is 2C after m-phase, than what will be the DNA content of daughter cell produced by meiosis-I and meiosis-II respectively ?

(1) 2C, 2C (2) 4C, 2C (3) 2C, 1C (4) 4C, 1C Q.111 Identify the process occuring in I, II and III

Transport proteing

A

A

A

B

B

Plasmalemma

I

II

III

I II II (1) Co port Symport Antiport (2) Antiport Uniport Symport (3) Symport Co port Antiport (4) Uniport Antiport Symport

Q.112 Which of the following characteristics defines an element as essential for a particular species

(1) If it is missing a plant cannot show normal growth and reproduction

(2) If it is absent other nutrients may be substituted for it

(3) If it is present in high concentration plant growth increases

(4) For high seed production it has be added as a fertilizer

Q.109 fuEu esa ls dkSulk ØksesfVMl ds ckjs esa vlR; gS \

(1) ;s izfrfyfidr xq.klw=k gS tks vHkh Hkh lsUVªkseh;j

ij tqMs gksrs gS

(2) ,d lelw=kh xq.klw=k esa nksuksa ØksesfVM vkauqokf'kd :i

ls leku gksrs gS

(3) fe;ksfll -I esa ,d xq.klq=k ds nksuksa flLVj

ØksesfVM iFkd gks tkrs gS

(4) ØksesfVM dk izfrfyfi dj.k S-izkoLFkk esa gksrk gS

Q.110 ;fn ,d dksf'kdk esa DNA dh ek=kk m-izkoLFkk ds

i'pkr~ 2C gS tks v/kZlw=kh foHkktu esa izos'k djus

okyh gS] rks Øe'k% v/kZlw=kh foHkktu-I o II dh iq=kh

dksf'kdkvksa esa DNA dh ek=kk gksxh \ (1) 2C, 2C (2) 4C, 2C (3) 2C, 1C (4) 4C, 1C Q.111 I, II rFkk III esa gksus okyh izfØ;k dks igpkus

Transportproteing

A

A

A

B

B

Plasmalemma

I

II

III

I II II (1) Co port Symport Antiport (2) Antiport Uniport Symport (3) Symport Co port Antiport (4) Uniport Antiport Symport

Q.112 fuEu esa ls dkSulk yk.k] fof'k"V tkfr ds fy,

vfuok;Z rRo dks ifjHkkf"kr djrk gS (1) ;fn ;g ikni esa vuqifLFkr gks rks ikni lkekU;

of) o tuu iznf'kZr ugha djsxk (2) ;fn ;g vuqifLFkr gks rks vU; iks"kd bls

izfrLFkkfir dj ldrs gS (3) ;fn ;g vf/kd lkUnzrk esa mifLFkr gks rks ikni

of) c<rh gS (4) vf/kd cht mRiknu ds fy, budks moZjd ds

:i esa Mkyk tkrk gS


Q.113 Which one of the following choice is afalse statement about the activities associated with PSI and PSII in noncyclic photophosphorylation ?

(1) Water is oxidised in PSII, but not PSI (2) Photon (light) are needed to activate both

PSI and PSII (3) Photolysis of water associated with PS-I (4) Production of NADPH + H is associated with

PSII, not PSI Q.114 What will happen to glycoytic pathway if a cell

runs completely out of ATP- (1) Glycolysis will speed up (2) Glycolysis will be slow down (3) Glycolysis will stop (4) Glycolysis will increase as energy will be

supplied by NADH2 Q.115

Column-I Column-II I Ahmad Khan (A) Integrated organic

farming II Ramesh Chand Dagar (B) Polyblend III FOAM (C) Great forest

conservation martyrIV Amrita Devi (D) Integrated waste

water treatment V S.L. Bahuguna (E) Chipko movement

The correct matching is- (1) I →B; II → A; III → D; IV → E; V → C (2) I →D; II → A; III → B; IV → C; V → E (3) I →C; II → B; III → D; IV → A; V → E (4) I →B; II → A; III → D; IV → C; V → E

Q.116 Column-I Column-II I Silent valley (A) Kaziranga II Rhinoceros (B) Bandipur III Tiger project in

karnataka (C) In situ conservation

IV National Park (D) Tropical evergreen forest

Q.113 fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d fodYi vpfØ; izdk'k

QkLQksfjfydj.k esa PSI rFkk PSII ls lEcfU?kr

fØ;kvksa ds ckjs esa xyr dFku gS \ (1) ty PSII esa vkDlhdr gksrk fdUrq PSI esa ughs (2) QksVksu (izdk'k) PSI o PSII nksuksa dks lfØ;

djus ds fy, vko';d gksrk gS (3) ty dk izdkf'kd vi?kVu PS-I ls lEcfU/kr gS

(4) NADPH + H dk mRiknu PSII, ds lkFk

lEcfU/kr gS PSI ds lkFk ugha

Q.114 XykbdksysfVd iFk esa D;k gksxk ;fn ,d dksf'kdk

iw.kZ :i ls ATP ls eqDr gks tk;s rks - (1) Xykbdksykbfll rst gksxk (2) Xykbdksykbfll /khek gksxk (3) Xykbdksykbfll cUn gks tk;sxk

(4) Xykbdksykbfll c<+sxk D;ksafd NADH2 ds kjk

ÅtkZ miyC/k gksxh

Q.115 LrEHk-I LrEHk-II I vgen [kku (A) lefUor dkcZfud

df"k II jes'k pUn Mkxj (B) iksyhCysUM III FOAM (C) egku ou lajk.k

'kghn IV verk nsoh (D) lefUor iznqf"kr ty

mipkj V S.L. cgqxq.kk (E) fpidks vkUnksyu

lgh feyku dhft, & (1) I →B; II → A; III → D; IV → E; V → C (2) I →D; II → A; III → B; IV → C; V → E (3) I →C; II → B; III → D; IV → A; V → E (4) I →B; II → A; III → D; IV → C; V → E

Q.116 LrEHk-I LrEHk-II I 'kkUr ?kkVh (A) dkthjaxk II xsUMk (B) ckUnhiqj III dukZVd esa Vkbxj

izkstsDV (C) Lo LFkkus lajk.k

IV jk"Vªh; m|ku (D) m".kdfVcU/kh;

lnkcgkj ou


(1) I →B; II → A; III → D; IV → C (2) I →D; II → A; III → B; IV → C (3) I →A; II → C; III → B; IV → D (4) I →A; II → C; III → B; IV → D Q.117 Causes of succession include- A. Sudden climatic change B. one species altering the environment for the

next species C. Deforesttation D. Forest fire (1) A, C (2) A, D (3) A, B, C (4) A, B, C, D Q.118 Which of the following statements is false ? (1) Secondary compounds such as the alkaloids

cocoa, opium, strychnine, nicotine andmophine are produced by plants for thepurpose of discouraging their predators

(2) Predators show low biotic potential thanparasites

(3) Predators in nature are prudent because theydo not exploit their prey

(4) Predators regulates the species diversity ofcommunity

Q.119 A population with a larger proportion of

reproductive ages than pre reproductive ageswill likely

(1) expanding (2) stable (3) declining (4) Data in not sufficient Q.120

Identify the componets labelled A, B, C and Din the diagram above from the list I to VIIIgiven along with components

(1) I →B; II → A; III → D; IV → C (2) I →D; II → A; III → B; IV → C (3) I →A; II → C; III → B; IV → D (4) I →A; II → C; III → B; IV → D

Q.117 vuqØe.k ds fuEu dkj.k gS & A. vpkud tyok;qoh; ifjorZu B. vkxkeh ih<h ds fy, ,d tkfr okrkoj.k esa

ifjorZu djrh gS C. ouksUewyu D. taxy dh vkx (1) A, C (2) A, D (3) A, B, C (4) A, B, C, D

Q.118 fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS \ (1) ikniks ds kjk mRikfnr] ekQhZu] fudksfVu]

LVªspfuu] vkWQh;e] dksdk tSls ,dsYdsykbM frh;d ;kSfxd gksrs gSa] tks ijHkfk;ksa dks grksRlkfgr djus ds fy, gksrs gS

(2) ijHkkh] ijthfo;ksa dh rqyuk esa vYi tSfod foHko iznf'kZr djrs gS

(3) izdfr esa ijHkkh prqj gksrs gS] D;ksafd os mudsf'kdkj dk nksgu ugha djrs gS

(4) ijHkkh] leqnk; dh iztkfr fofo/krk dk fu;eu djrs gS

Q.119 iqoZ tuu vk;q dh viskk] tuu vk;q ds cMs Hkkx ds

lkFk le"Vh laHkkfor gksxh (1) c<+rh (2) fLFkj (3) ?kVrh (4) lwpuk i;kZIr ugah gS Q.120

fn;s x;s ?kVdks ds lkFk I ls VIII rd esa ls mijksDr

fp=k esa ukekafdr A, B, C rFkk D dks igpkus


I. Micropyle II. Chalaza III. Central cell IV. PEN V. MMC VI. Megaspore VI. Degenerating synergid VII. Degenerating antipodal cell VIII. Polar nuclei The correct components are A B C D (1) I VIII II III (2) II VIII III I (3) VI IV VII III (4) VI IV VII V

I. chtk.M kj II. fuHkkx III. dsUnzh; dksf'kdk IV. PEN V. MMC VI. xq: chtk.kq VI. àkflr lgk;d dksf'kdk VII. àkflr izfreq[kh dksf'kdk VIII. /kqzoh; dsUnzd lgh ?kVd gS A B C D (1) I VIII II III (2) II VIII III I (3) VI IV VII III (4) VI IV VII V


Space for Rough Work


Time : 3 : 00 Hrs. MAX MARKS: 480

Name : ______________________________________Roll No. : ____________________ Date : _____________________

Instructions to Candidates

CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.)

Ph: 0744-3040000, Fax (0744) 3040050 email : [email protected] ; Website : www.careerpointgroup.com

Now, Schedule practice questions are available on internet also, Visit www.examtayari.com

A. lkekU; :

1. Ñi;k izR;sd iz'u ds fy, fn, x, funsZ'kksa dks lko/kkuhiwoZd if<+;s rFkk lEcfU/kr fo"k;kas esa mÙkj&iqfLrdk ij

iz'u la[;k ds lek lgh mÙkj fpfUgr dhft,A

2. iz'u&i=k ds bl eq[k i"B ij fn, x;s [kkyh LFkku esa viuk uke] vuqØek¡d o fnukad fyf[k;sA

3. iz'ui=k esa jQ dk;Z gsrq [kkyh LFkku fn;s x, gSaA jQ dk;Z gsrq dksbZ vfrfjDr iqfLrdk ugha nh tk,sxhA

4. mRrj ds fy,] OMR vyx ls nh tk jgh gSA

5. ifjohkdksa kjk funsZ'k fn;s tkus ls iwoZ iz'u&i=k iqfLrdk dh lhy dks ugha rksMsa+A

6. [kkyh dkxt+] fDyicksMZ] y?kqx.kd lkj.kh] LykbM :y] dsYdqysVj] lsY;qyj Qksu] ist+j rFkk bysDVªkWfud midj.kksa

dh fdlh Hkh voLFkk esa ijhkk dk esa vanj ys tkus dh vuqefr ugha nh tk,sxhA

B. OMR dh iwfrZ :

7. OMR 'khV ds CykWdksa esa viuk uke] vuqØek¡d] cSp] dkslZ rFkk ijhkk dk dsUnz Hkjsa rFkk xksyksa dks mi;qDr :i ls

dkyk djsaA

8. OMR 'khV dks xUnk@eksMsa+ ughaA

C. iz'u&i=k iSVuZ :

bl iz'ui=k esa izR;sd fo"k; esa fuEu izdkj ds iz'u gSa:-

9. cgqfodYih izdkj ds iz'u ftuesa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSA

10. LrEHkksa dks lqesfyr djus okys iz'u gSaA

11. x|ka'k ij vk/kkfjr cgqfodYih izdkj ds iz'u ftuesa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSA

12. dFkukas ij vk/kkfjr iz'uA

13. fp=k ij vk/kkfjr iz'uA

14. izk;ksfxd @ iz;ksx ij vk/kkfjr iz'uA

D. vadu i)fr:

15. izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, 4 vad fn;s tk;asxs rFkk izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1 vad ?kVk;k tk;sxkA

SEA

L

Documents

CAREER POINT TEST SERIES FOR AIPMT-MAIN (FULL SYLLABUS) Time : 3 : 00 Hrs. MAX MARKS: 480 Name : ______________________________________Roll No