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1. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements: 1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out. 2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or

surroundings. 3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-

phone or PC. 4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 4 only Explanation

Augmented reality (AR) is an interactive experience of a real-world environment where the objects that reside in the real-world are enhanced by computer-generated perceptual information, sometimes across multiple sensory modalities, including visual, auditory, haptic, somatosensory and olfactory. The overlaid sensory information can be constructive (i.e. additive to the natural environment), or destructive (i.e. masking of the natural environment). This experience is seamlessly interwoven with the physical world such that it is perceived as an immersive aspect of the real environment.In this way, augmented reality alters one's ongoing perception of a real-world environment.

Virtual reality completely replaces the user's real-world environment with a simulated one. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augmented_reality& https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_reality 2. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to (a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs (b) an early human species (c) a cave system found in North-East India (d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent Explanation

Scientists have uncovered the most complete remains yet from the mysterious ancient-hominin group known as the Denisovans. The jawbone, discovered high on the Tibetan Plateau and dated to more than 160,000 years ago, is also the first Denisovan specimen found outside the Siberian cave in which the hominin was uncovered a decade ago — confirming suspicions that Denisovans were more widespread than the fossil record currently suggests.

The research marks the first time an ancient human has been identified solely through the analysis of proteins. With no usable DNA, scientists examined proteins in the specimen’s teeth, raising hopes that more fossils could be identified even when DNA is not preserved.

Thus, Option B is Correct. 3. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species. (b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.

SET C ANSWER KEY

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https://baliyans.com/test-series/mains-2019-test-series

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_reality

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Augmented_reality

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_reality

https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-019-00672-2

https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-019-00672-2


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(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory. (d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

Explanation

Option(b)

Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.In 2007 Scientistsin Japan reported development of the world's first DNA molecule made almost entirely of artificial parts. The finding opened up huge possibilities in gene therapy.

https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2008/07/080707091915.htm

Option(c)

A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.It is exactly what is done through Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technology.PCR mimics what happens in cells when DNA is copied (replicated) prior to cell division, but it is carried out in controlled conditions in a laboratory. The machine that is used is simply called a PCR machine or a thermocycler.

https://www.sciencelearn.org.nz/resources/2347-what-is-pcr

Option:(d)

Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes

Plants cells are totipotent and a single cell has the potential to divide through mitosis in sterile conditions in a culture petridish to grow into a mature plant .Similarly animal cells can undergo mitotic cell division upto multicelled stages in a cultured petridishexamples: Somatic cell nuclear transfer technology(reproductive cloning) and Zygote created through Invitro fertilization.

Option (a)Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species is incorrect as it is functional DNA which can be created through recombinant DNA technology by joining DNA taken from different species.

https://www.nature.com/scitable/topicpage/recombinant-dna-technology-and-transgenic-animals

4. Consider the following statements: A digital signature is

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it

2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet

3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

A digital signature is a mathematical scheme for verifying the authenticity of digital messages or documents. A valid digital signature, where the prerequisites are satisfied, gives a recipient very strong reason to believe that the message was created by a known sender (authentication), and that the message was not altered in transit (integrity).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_signature

5. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person

2. Sleep monitoring of a person



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_signature#The_current_state_of_use_%E2%80%93_legal_and_practical

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Authentication_protocol

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_integrity

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_signature






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3. Assisting the hearing impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

Wearable technology, wearables, fashion technology, tech togs, or fashion electronics are smart electronic devices (electronic device with micro-controllers) that can be incorporated into clothing or worn on the body as implants or accessories.

Wearable devices such as activity trackers are an example of the Internet of Things, since "things" such as electronics, software, sensors, and connectivity are effectors that enable objects to exchange data (including data quality) through the internet with a manufacturer, operator, and/or other connected devices, without requiring human intervention.

Wearable technology has a variety of applications which grows as the field itself expands. It appears prominently in consumer electronics with the popularization of the smartwatch and activity tracker. Apart from commercial uses, wearable technology is being incorporated into navigation systems, advanced textiles, and healthcare.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wearable_technology 6. 'RNA interference (RNAi) technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why? 1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. 2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer. 3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. 4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 only Explanation

RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene expression or translation, by neutralizing targeted mRNA molecules. RNAi is also known as post-transcriptional gene silencing (PTGS), and quelling.

RNA interference (RNAi) is a promising gene regulatory approach in functional genomics that has significant impact on crop improvement. RNAi has also been exploited in plants for resistance against pathogens, insect/pest, nematodes, and virus that cause significant economic losses. This novel approach opens new avenues for crop improvement by developing disease resistant, abiotic or biotic stress tolerant, and high yielding elite varieties.

RNA interference (RNAi) is a mechanism for gene silencing. Such mechanism possesses an unusual ability in targeting cancer-related genes.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC309050/ 7. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth.

What is the significance of this observation? (a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected.



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Activity_tracker

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_of_things

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electronics

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Software

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sensor

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Smartwatch

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Healthcare

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wearable_technology






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(b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected. (c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed. (d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'. Explanation

Billions of light years away, two black holes have collided to create a larger one – the biggest black hole merger yet detected. It has a mass more than 80 times that of the sun.The resulting energy injected into the fabric of spacetime was also record breaking, with five sun’s worth of mass released in the form gravitational waves as the two holes spiralled in towards each other.Such titanic amounts of energy meant that the signal was still detectable by the time it reached gravitational wave detectors on Earth. It produced a record-breaking result – the most distant collision detected so far, nine billion light years away.“This event also had black holes spinning the fastest of all mergers observed so far,” says the Australian National University’s Susan Scott, a chief investigator with the Centre of Excellence for Gravitational Wave Discovery (OzGrav). “It is also by far the most distant merger observed.”

https://cosmosmagazine.com/space/gravitational-waves-biggest-black-hole-merger-ever-detected-revealed 8. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in

India? 1. Genetic predisposition of some people 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases 3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Explanation

The developing world where antibiotics can be bought for human or animal use without a prescription, the emergence and spread of resistance among bacteriahas been made worse. Thus in countries without standard treatment guidelines, antibiotics are often over-prescribed by health workers and veterinarians and over-used by the public.

Without urgent action, the world is heading for a post-antibiotic era, in which common infections and minor injuries will once again lead to deaths like in the pre-antibiotic era.

Genetic predisposition of people can make people more vulnerable to infections but it has nothing to do with increase in resistance to antibiotics in the micro-organisms.

Multiple chronic diseases like diabetes,hypertension,cancer can increase the sufferers vulnerability to infections but it can not be the cause of multi-drug resistance.

https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/antibiotic-resistance 9. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news? (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing (b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients (c) A gene that makes plants pest resistant (d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops Explanation



https://cosmosmagazine.com/space/gravitational-waves-biggest-black-hole-merger-ever-detected-revealed






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CRISPR Cas 9 is the latest genome editing tool with huge potential in gene therapy

The CRISPR-Cas9 system consists of two key molecules that introduce a change (mutation?) into the DNA. These are:

an enzyme? called Cas9. This acts as a pair of ‘molecular scissors’ that can cut the two strands of DNA at a specific location in the genome so that bits of DNA can then be added or removed.

a piece of RNA? called guide RNA (gRNA). This consists of a small piece of pre-designed RNA sequence (about 20 bases long) located within a longer RNA scaffold. The scaffold part binds to DNA and the pre-designed sequence ‘guides’ Cas9 to the right part of the genome. This makes sure that the Cas9 enzyme cuts at the right point in the genome.

https://www.yourgenome.org/facts/what-is-crispr-cas9 10. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. (c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those

infected with HIV. (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Explanation

Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C and HIV are transmitted in a similar fashion through contaminated syringes, infectedblood, tranfusions, unprotected sexual intercourse.

The number of people affected by Hepatitis B and C are much more than HIV infected people.

People infected by Hepatitis B and C may remain symptom less for many years or with mild symptoms but the infection may manifest as chronic liver illness followed by Cirrhosis of liver and hepatic carcinoma.

People can bevery effectively protected against Hepatitis B through vaccination. India is the largest producer of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine.There is no effective Hepatitis c vaccine till date.Efforts to develop a hepatitis C vaccine started more than 25 years ago, when the hepatitis C virus was identified. Since then, researchers have studied more than 20 potential vaccines in animals. A few of these vaccines, developed mainly in the past decade, have undergone limited testing in people.

https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/hepatitis-c/expert-answers/hepatitis-c-vaccine/faq-20110002 11. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation Statement 1 is incorrect: High courts can strike down central laws also. For example Madras high court while disposing of a Writ petition seeking a declaration to the effect that the Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) (Six Months Training) Rules, 2014 declared it beyond the scope of the Pre-conceptional and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, and inconsistent with Medical Council of India Act, 1956 and Regulations.








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Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void. This was further reaffirmed in Golak Nath v. State of Punjab and Minerva Mill’s case. Therefore as it stands the constitutional amendment comes under a law for judicial review if it violates any fundamental rights and Basic structure of our constitution. Thus, Option D is correct. 12. Consider the following statements: 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of

goods and services in different countries. 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation

One popular macroeconomic analysis metric to compare economic productivity and standards of living between countries is purchasing power parity (PPP). PPP is an economic theory that compares different countries' currencies through a "basket of goods" approach.

In terms of PPP dollars, India is the third largest economy in the world. 13. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following

statements: 1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest. 2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds. 3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane. 4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation Statement 1 is correct : Major Kharif crops are rice, maize, cotton of which rice cultivable area is around 435 Million Hectare ,Cotton Is around 120 Million hectare and maize is even lesser than this. Statement 2 is incorrect : Statement 3 is Correct: Cotton cultivation is around 120 Million hectare and sugarcane is around 50 million hectare. Statement 4 is Incorrect : Sugarcane cultivation has not declined Steadily but has fluctuated in last 5 years . So the correct option is A 14. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest

imports in terms of value in the last five years? (a) Spices (b) Fresh fruits








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(c) Pulses (d) Vegetable oils Explanation

Vegetable oil has the Maximum import Hence option D is correct, Vegetable oils. 15. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of

liberty? (a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers (b) Absence of restraint (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully Explanation

The Preamble of the constitution of India professes to secure the liberty of belief, thought, expression, faith, and worship which are essential to the development of the individuals and the nation. Since we have adopted a positive definition of Liberty (Liberty is clubbed with belief, thought, expression, faith and worship) our Preamble transcended beyond negative and narrow interpretation of US constitution (Restrains state and protection from tyranny).

Thus, Option D is correct. 16. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/ RBI takes to stop the slide of

Indian rupee? (a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports (b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds (c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy Explanation

Following an expansionary monetary policy will lead to the money supply in an economy. This in turn will lead to more outflow of dollars and thus, the rupee arrest cannot be stopped.

All the other options will bring more dollars into India and thus can arrest the slide of Indian rupee. 17. Consider the following statements:

The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India

2. They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises 3. They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by

the end of the calendar year








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Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation Storage of Payment System Data

18. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its Citizens known as 'General Data

Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018? (a) Australia (b) Canada (c) The European Union (d) The United States of America Explanation

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), agreed upon by the European Parliament and Council in April 2016,will replace the Data Protection Directive in Spring 2018 as the primary law regulating how companiesprotect EU citizens' personal data. Companies that are already in compliance with the Directive must ensure that they are also compliant with the new requirements of the GDPR before it becomes effective on May 25, 2018. Companies that fail to achieve GDPR compliance before the deadline will be subject to stiff penalties and fines.

Thus, Option C is Correct. 19. Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation

Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries? (a) Japan (b) Russia (c) The United Kingdom (d) The United States of America Explanation








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The Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field identified jointly by Russia and India was signed by Director General of the State Atomic Energy Corporation RosatomAlexey Likhachev and the Secretary of Department of Atomic Energy and Chairman of Atomic Energy Commission Kamlesh Vyas.

The two countries intent to develop a project of six nuclear power units of Russian design at a new site in India, further enhance cooperation in the third countries and bring in new perspective nuclear technologies together with joint construction of nuclear power plants.

Thus Option B is Correct. 20. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? (a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio (b) Increase in the banking habit of the population (c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio (d) Increase in the population of the country Explanation The Money Multiplier refers to how an initial deposit can lead to a bigger final increase in the total money supply. Formula for money multiplier

Thus, increase in reserve ratios like Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio decreases the money

multiplier.

On the other hand, the increase in population does not necessarily leads to the increase in money multiplier.

Increase in banking habit of the population will lead to more deposits in the banking system and thus, banks have more money to lend out money which leads to the increase in money multiplier.

21. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements 1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement 1 is correct- AIIB currently has 93 member’s countries and Beijing acts as AIIB headquarter Statement 2 is Incorrect- India is second largest shareholder in AIIB after China. It is headquartered in Beijing, China. Statement 3 is Incorrect- AIIB has members from outside Asia also, like Algeria, Ghana, Libya, Morocco, Serbia and Togo. Thus, Option A is correct. 22. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently? (a) To lessen the Government of India's perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit (b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments



https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/topic/Rosatom

https://www.economicshelp.org/wp-content/uploads/2007/11/money-multiplier-formula.png


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(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending Explanation What is Project Sashakt?

Project Sashakt was proposed by a panel led by PNB chairman sunil Mehta. bad loans of up to Rs. 50 crore will be managed at the bank level with a deadline of 90 days . for bad loans of Rs. 50-500 crore, banks will enter an inter-credit agreement, authorizing the lead bank to implement a resolution plan in 180 days, or refer the asset to NCLT. For loans above Rs. 500 crore, the panel recommended an independent AMC, supported by institutional funding through the AIF. The idea is to help consolidate stressed assets.

23. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the (a) Banks Board Bureau (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Union Ministry of Finance (d) Management of concerned bank Explanation

The Centre has appointed a new Banks Board Bureau (BBB), under the Chairmanship of BhanuPratap Sharma, to select top management in public sector banks.

BBB had started to function from April 1, 2016, and was set up for a period of two years.

It was initially given the mandate to recommend candidates for the top posts in public sector banks. This role was later expanded to suggest capital raising plans.

24. Consider the following statements: 1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government

of India. 2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas. 3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006 (NO. 19 OF 2006) notified via Gazette Notification dated 31st March, 2006. Thus, it is not the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India as number of other regulatory bodies such as SEBI, IRDA, etc are set up before 2006.

The Act provide for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.








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25. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/ differences between LTE (Long-

Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? 1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. 2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation

LTE VOLTE

1. Stands for Long Term Evolution Stands for Voice over LTE

2. Primarily designed to be a data-only technology Designed to carry both voice and data

3. Does not natively support voice transmission. Supports voice as well as data transmission.

4. Quality of voice reduces if data connection is left on.

Voice quality remains excellent even if the data connection is on

https://techwelkin.com/difference-between-lte-and-volte-4g 26. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily. 3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3



https://techwelkin.com/difference-between-lte-and-volte-4g






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Explanation The Act has made amendments to the Maternity Benefits Act, 1961.The majority of the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act has come into force with effect from 1st April, 2017. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act has increased the duration of paid maternity leave available for women employees from the existing 12 weeks to 26 weeks. Under the Act, this benefit could be availed by women for a period extending up to 8 weeks before the expected delivery date and remaining 18 weeks can be availed post childbirth. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act makes crèche facility mandatory for every establishment employing 50 or more employees. Women employees would be permitted to visit the crèche 4 times during the day. The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act makes it mandatory for employers to educate women about the maternity benefits available to them at the time of their appointment. Statement 3 is correct: For women who are expecting after having 2 children, the duration of paid maternity leave shall be 12 weeks (i.e., 6 weeks pre and 6 weeks post expected date. Thus, Option C is correct. 27. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index? (a) Maintenance of law and order (b) Paying taxes (c) Registering property (d) Dealing with construction permits Explanation

28. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following? (a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) rules 198. (b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999. (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. (d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011. Explanation

The E-Waste (Management & Handling) Rules 2011introduced the concept of EPR for the first time in India. All producers of electronics like Phones, Computers, Washing Machines were responsible for setting up reverse logistics for collection of E-Waste and channelizing it to State Pollution Control Board authorized recyclers.

In March 2016, the E-Waste policy was amended with the new E-Waste (Management) Rules 2016 being notified by the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change. The new rules set stringent targets for








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the producers to collect and recycle EOL products starting from 30% in the first two years and increasing to 70% by the seventh year while simplifying the process of applying for EPR Authorization.

Currently India has EPR policies for Electronic waste and Plastic packaging waste. Thus, Option C is correct. 29. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if

any) paid to the farmers plus (a) transportation cost only (b) interest cost only (c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost (d) procurement incidentals charges for godowns Explanation

Components of economic cost of foodgrains incurred by the Food Corporation of India Source: FCI Annual

Reports (various issues) 30. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital? (a) The proportion of literates in the population (b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines (c) The size of population in the working age group (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society Explanation

Social capital is defined by the OECD as “networks together with shared norms, values and understandings that facilitate co-operation within or among groups”. In this definition, we can think of networks as real-world links between groups or individuals. Think of networks of friends, family networks, networks of former colleagues, and so on. Our shared norms, values and understandings are less concrete than our social networks.

31. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of








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(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme (b) Lead Bank Scheme (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (d) National Skill Development Mission

The Service Area Approach (SAA) was a scheme launched by the RBI in 1989 for an orderly development of the rural areas with the of the country. Under the SAA, all rural and semi-urban branches of banks were allocated specific villages, generally in geographical difficult areas, the overall development and the credit needs of which were to be taken care of by the respective branches. The concerned bank should meet the banking needs of the service area by creating link between bank credit- production and productivity and income expansion.

32. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements: 1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country. 2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the

formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government. 3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

In India, the minerals are classified as minor minerals and major minerals.

According to section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 “Minor Minerals” means building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand other than sand used for prescribed purposes[1], and any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral. (For the purposes of this Act, the word "minerals” includes all minerals except mineral oils- natural gas and petroleum)

The central government has the power to notify “minor minerals” under section 3 (e) of the MMDR Act, 1957.

On the other hand, as per Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957 State Governments have complete powers for making Rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals and levy and collection of royalty on minor minerals.

33. Consider the following statements: 1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities. 2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



http://ibm.nic.in/writereaddata/files/07102014115602MMDR%20Act%201957_10052012.pdf

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(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation

External debt is the money that borrowers in a country owe to foreign lenders. India’s external debt was $513.4 billion at the end of December 2017, an increase of 8.8% since March 2017. Most of it was owed by private businesses which borrowed at attractive rates from foreign lenders.

To be precise, 78.8% of the total external debt ($404.5 billion) was owed by non-governmental entities like private companies. The size of external commercial borrowings and foreign currency convertible bonds, which represents Indian companies’ foreign borrowings, has risen from Rs. 99,490 crore at the end of December 2015 to Rs 1,72,872 crore at the end of December 2017.

While external debt may be denominated in either the rupee or a foreign currency like the U.S. dollar, most of India’s external debt is linked to the dollar. This means Indian borrowers will have to pay back their lenders by first converting their rupees into dollars. As of December 2017, about 48% of India’s total external debt was denominated in dollars and 37.3% in rupees.

34. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India? (a) Advances (b) Deposits (c) Investments (d) Money at call and short notice Explanation

Deposits is a liability as this has to be returned back to the public. While all other are assets as it will generate income to the banks.

35. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a

currency crisis? 1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector 2. Increasing the government expenditure 3. Remittances from Indians abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 35. D

Foreign Exchange earnings of India’s IT Sector will bring the dollars in the country and thus, the currency risk is reduced.

Increasing the government expenditure will inject the demand into an economy which would have reduced because of currency risk.

Remittances from Indians abroad will also bring dollars into the country and thus, the currency risk will be reduced.








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36. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) (b) Rajamannar Committee (1969) (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983) (d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000) Explanation

Sarkaria Commission – Recommendations related to office of Governor

The Governor should be eminent in some walk of life and from outside the state. He should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in recent past. Besides, he should not be a member of the ruling party.

He should be appointed after effective consultations with the state Chief Minister and Vice President and Speaker of the Lok Sabha should be consulted by the PM before his selection.

As far as possible, the governor should enjoy the term of five years.

He should be removed before his tenure only on the grounds as mentioned in the constitution or if aspersions are cast on his morality, dignity, constitutional propriety, etc.

In the process of removal, state government may be informed and consulted. Thus, Option C is correct 37. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be

part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? (a) Certificate of Deposit (b) Commercial Paper (c) Promissory Note (d) Participatory Note

Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are instruments used by foreign funds and investors not registered with the SEBI to invest in Indian securities. They are generally issued overseas by associates of India based foreign brokerages (FPIs) and domestic institutional investors.

38. Consider the following statements: 1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both

National and State levels. 2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the

Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 39. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications,

insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees








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3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Reforms Commission Legislative 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2 and 5 Explanation

Finance Commission, FSLRC and NITI Aayog don’t review the independent regulators in the field of insurance, telecommunications, insurance, electricity etc.

40. With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital

good industries. 2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of

wealth and economic power. 3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

The financial sector was included in the Eight Five Year Plan from after the economic reforms in 1991. 41. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3








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(b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Explanation Statement 1 is correct: 5 tribal groups have been categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands. Statement 2 is correct: The criteria followed for determination of PVTGs are as under:

1. A pre-agriculture level of technology; 2. A stagnant or declining population; 3. Extremely low literacy; and 4. A subsistence level of economy.

Statement 3 is incorrect :75 tribal groups have been categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s for them . Among the 75 listed PVTG’s the highest number are found in Odisha (13), followed by Andhra Pradesh (12), Bihar including Jharkhand (9) Madhya Pradesh including Chhattisgarh (7) Tamil Nadu (6) Kerala and Gujarat having five groups each.The remaining PVTGs live in West Bengal (3) Maharashtra (3), two each in Karnataka and Uttarakhand and one each in Rajasthan, Tripura and Manipur. All the four tribal groups in Andaman, and one in Nicobar Islands, are recognised as PVTGs. The Saharia people of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan are the largest among the PVTGs with population more than 4 lakhs. Smallest population size among the PVTGs are the Sentinelese (as per the last contact effort on March 9, 2005, groups of 32 and 13 persons were sighted at different places) Statement 4 is correct : Kondareddis in AP and irulas in Tamil nadu are classified as PVTG. Thus, Option C is correct 42. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary

laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament. (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency

without the counsel from the Cabinet. (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature. Explanation

Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court: The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe.

Subject to the provisions of any law made in this behalf by Parliament, the Supreme Court shall, as respects the whole of the territory of India, have all and every power to make any order for the purpose of securing the attendance of any person, the discovery or production of any documents, or the investigation or punishment of any contempt of itself.

Thus, Option B is correct 43. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India. Consider the following statements:








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1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation Statement 1 is correct: The Governor enjoys vast and formidable legislative powers under the Constitution. He is an integral part of the State Legislature. The main legislative powers of the Governor may be enumerated as follows: 1. The Constitution confers upon the Governor the power to nominate one member to the Lower House and

some members to the Upper House of the State. He can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community to the State Legislative Assembly, if in his opinion this community is not adequately represented in that House. In a State with a Legislative Council, the Governor nominates one-sixth of the total number of its members.

2. The Governor can summon the State Legislature, prorogue either House or dissolve the Legislative Assembly. 3. The Constitution gives the Governor the right to address the House or Houses of the state Legislature

separately or jointly. At the beginning of each new session and immediately after a general election to the Assembly, he has to deliver an address to the Legislature in which he lays down the policy of his Government for ensuing year .Article 175

4. The Governor can also send messages to any House of the State Legislature. The Constitution lay down that a House to which any message is so sent shall consider any matter required by the message to be taken into consideration.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 208. Rules of procedure.—(1) A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating, subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. (2) Until rules are made under clause (1), the rules of procedure and standing orders in force immediately before the commencement of this Constitution with respect to the Legislature for the corresponding Province shall have effect in relation to the Legislature of the State subject to such modifications and adaptations as may be made therein by the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, or the Chairman of the Legislative Council, as the case may be. (3) In a State having a Legislative Council the Governor, after consultation with the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and the Chairman of the Legislative Council, may make rules as to the procedure with respect to communications between the two Houses. Thus, Option A is correct 44. Consider the following statements: 1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants

by Land, Sea and Air'. 2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. 3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion

of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.

4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.








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Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect- Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air, comes under the aegis of United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime(UNTOC).

Statement 2 is correct- The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC), which entered into force in December 2005, is the ever-first binding global anti-corruption instrument. It obliges the States to prevent and criminalize different corrupt practices, promote international cooperation, cooperate for the recovery of stolen assets and enhance technical assistance and information exchange.

Statement 3 is incorrect- Ahighlight of the United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC)is the inclusion of a specific chapter on asset recovery, aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners, including countries from which they had been taken illicitly.

Statement 4 is correct- The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its Member States to assist in the implementation of both the Conventions (UNCAC and UNTOC), which along with the UN Drug Conventions of 1961, 1971 and 1988 underpin all the operational work of UNODC.

Thus Option C is Correct. 45. Consider the following statements: 1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos

grown on forest areas. 2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006,

bamboo is a minor forest produce. 3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows

ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: After amending Section 2(7) of Indian Forest Act, 1927, bamboo is no longer a tree and felled bamboo too is not timber.Consequent to the amendment, felling or transportation of bamboos growing in non-forest areas will not require any permits. So any bamboo grown in private or homestead land by millions of farmers does not require a felling permission or transit permission from any state forest department.

Statement 2 is Correct:As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 it recognises bambooas a Minor Forest Produce.

Statement 3 is correct: The rights which are included in section 3(1) of theScheduled Tribes and Other traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act of 2006vests the “right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce” with scheduled tribes and traditional forest dwellers.

Thus Option B is correct.








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46. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice? (a) Article 19 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 25 (d) Article 29 Explanation

The Supreme Court said that right to privacy and the protection of sexual orientation lie at the core of the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Constitution. The old law violates Article 14 of the Constitution, which guarantees all people equality before the law; Article 15, which prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth; and Article 21, which guarantees protection of life and personal liberty.

Thus, Option B is correct 47. Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India. 2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board. 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 48. Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of

India to 1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure

and manner in which it is sought 2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 49. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories. (b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only. (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste

processing facilities. (d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to

another district. 50. Consider the following statements: As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment)

Rules, 2018 1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off

workers








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2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation

The government has notified fixed term employment for all sectors through an amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946. Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire-and-fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen.

As per the the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018, a “fixed term employment workman is a workman who has been engaged on the basis of a written contract of employment for a fixed period”. No employer of an industrial establishment shall convert the posts of the permanent workmen existing in his industrial establishment on the date of commencement of the amended rules.

No workman employed on fixed term employment basis as a result of non-renewal of contract or employment or on its expiry shall be entitled to any notice or pay in lieu thereof, if his services are terminated. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen.

51. Consider the following statements: 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation Statement 1 is correct- Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Statement 2 is correct- Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population. India is globally the biggest source of ammonia emission, nearly double that of NOx emissions. Statement 3 is correct- The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016. Thus Option D is correct.

52. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati? (a) Recently discovered uranium deposits (b) Tropical rain forests (c) Underground cave systems (d) Water reservoirs Explanation








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Recently, The Central Water Commission (CWC) monitors storage position of 70 major and important reservoirs spread all over the country of which 26 reservoirs have significant hydro-power benefit with installed capacities of more than 60 MW.

Water Reservoirs surveyed by CWC-

NagarjunaSagar (22%), SriramSagar (14%) and Somasila (24%) in Andhra Pradesh; Tenughat (28%) and Tilaiya (6%) in Jharkhand; GobindSagar (20%) and Pong Dam (19%) in Himachal Pradesh; Krishna Sagar (44%), Tungabhadra (32%), Ghataprabha (23%), Malaprapha (3%), Harangi (16%) and Supa (47%) in Karnataka; Kallada (49%) and Idamalayar (48%) in Kerala; Jayakwadi (29%), Bhima (9%), Mula (33%), Yeldari (24%), Girna (10%) and Khadkwasla (20%) in Maharashtra; Lower Bhawani (10%), Aliyar (20%) and Sholayar (6%) in Tamil Nadu; Matatila (13%) in Uttar Pradesh and Mayurakshi (32%), Kangsabati (14%) in West Bengal are also very low.

Option D is Correct. 53. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public

transport, consider the following statements: 1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation Statement 1 is Incorrect- Compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG can reduce not eliminate emission of carbon monoxide up to 70%, besides enabling up to 5% savings in fuel, tests by the Automotive Research Association of India and Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL) have found. Statement 2 is correct- H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. Statement 3 is correct- H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%. Statement 4 is Incorrect- For consumers who pay Rs 42 per kg for CNG, the cost of H-CNG would not be more than Rs 43 per kg. Thus, Option B is correct.

54. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night? (a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface. (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation. (c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights. (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level. Explanation

Dew formation needs a specific low temperature with humidy and a clear sky but on a cloudy night, the clouds send the heat back to the ground so the ground never gets cold enough for the dew to be formed.

So correct option is B 55. Consider the following statements:




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1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation Statement 1 is incorrect: In Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain the Allahabad High Court invalidates Ms. Indira Gandhi’s election on grounds of corrupt practices, the 39th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975 was enacted to exclude judicial review in election disputes involving the Prime Minister. The Apex court held that power of judicial review cannot be taken away as it is key to democracy. Statement 2 is correct: In 2014, Parliament enacted the Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014 and the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014 to replace the collegium with an independent commission, the NJAC . Subsequently the Supreme Court struck down the two laws as unconstitutional, and re-instated the collegium process.The court held that the Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014 violates the basic structure of the Constitution because it does not secure primacy of the Judiciary in judicial appointments. Thus, Option B is correct 56. Consider the following statements: 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok

Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour'

of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the

Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed

by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 Statement 1 is incorrect: The procedure for removal of judges is elaborated in the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968.The Speaker or Chairman may consult individuals and examine relevant material related to the notice. Based on this, he or she may decide to either admit the motion or refuse to admit it. Statement 2 is incorrect: The process of impeachment is described in Article 124(4) of the Constitution and the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968. A judge can be removed on the grounds of “proved misbehaviour or incapacity”. Neither misbehaviour nor incapacity are defined, but would include any criminal activity or other judicial impropriety. Statement 3 is correct: The process of impeachment is described in Article 124(4) of the Constitution and the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.








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Statement 4 is correct: The motion for removal is required to be adopted by each House of Parliament by: (i) a majority of the total membership of that House; and (ii) a majority of at least two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. If the motion is adopted by this majority, the motion will be sent to the other House for adoption. Once the motion is adopted in both Houses, it is sent to the President, who will issue an order for the removal of the judge. Thus, Option C is correct. 57. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri (c) Indira Gandhi (d) Moratji Desai Explanation

The Constitution (9th Amendment ) Act 1960 was done under the premiership of Jawahar Lal Nehru. The amendment intended to settle boundary disputes between Pakistan and India.

Thus, Option A is correct. 58. Consider the following statements: 1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi. 2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. 3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self sufficient in

coal production. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

Statement 1 is correct- The Indira Gandhi administration nationalized coal mining in phases – coking coal mines in 1971–72 and non-coking coal mines in 1973. With the enactment of the Coal Mines (Nationalization) Act, 1973, all coal mines in India were nationalized on 1 May 1973.

Statement 2 is incorrect- The coal ministry used the reverse bidding route to allocate coal blocks to private players.

Statement 3 is incorrect- India is still an importer of coal as the domestic players are not able to meet the demands.

Thus, Option A is correct. 59. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the

grounds of 'Office of Profit'. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only








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(d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation Statement 1 is Correct- Under the provisions of Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the central or state government. Provisions of Articles 102 and 191 also protect a legislator occupying a government position if the office in question has been made immune to disqualification by law. Parliament has also enacted the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, which has been amended several times to expand the exempted list. Statement 2 is correct. Statement 3 is Incorrect: The word ‘office’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of the People Act of 1951. But different courts have interpreted it (Kanta Kathuria v. Manak Chand Surana) to mean a position with certain duties that are more or less of public character. However, a legislator cannot be disqualified from either the Parliament or state Assembly for holding any office. It can be done for holding: a) An office; b) An office of profit; c) An office under the union or state government; d) An office exempt by law from purview of disqualificatory provisions. All four conditions have to be satisfied before an MP and MLA can be disqualified. Thus, Option A is correct. 60. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining

be declared null and void? (a) Third Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule (c) Ninth Schedule (d) Twelfth Schedule Explanation

The Constitution provides autonomy to tribal areas in matters of governance under the Fifth and Sixth Schedules, which was further fortified by the Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) judgment where the Supreme Court declared that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule.

Thus, Option B is Correct. 61. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia

diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of (a) anti-malarial drug (b) biodiesel (c) pulp for paper industry (d) textile fibre Explanation

Himalayan nettle, a fibre-yielding plant, has become an important livelihood option for people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu Kush Himalaya.

The fiber, made from the stem bark of Himalayan nettles, is used to make goods like carpets, fabrics, bags, and clothing. Also, the roots and leaves are used as traditional medicine and are said to be effective for skin diseases (e.g., atopy), headache, arthritis, stomachache, and fever, as well as having insect deterrent and antibacterial effects.

Option D is Correct.








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62. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used? 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location 3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

Normalized Area Vegetation Index (NAVI) is proposed for estimating chlorophyll content (Chl) from remote sensing data.

From space, the amount of atmospheric trace gases can only be measured by interpreting spectral features of light emitted or reflected by the Earth atmosphere. On its way through the atmosphere, at certain wavelengths light gets absorbed by atmospheric trace gases and the depth of the absorption lines in the reflected spectrum provides information about its atmospheric abundance. This technique is called atmospheric remote sensing.

India is facing crucial problem as the other world, by the impact of Global warming which is resulting from climate change. Global warming is an increase in Earth’s average surface temperature, land surface temperature (LST) plays a critical role in Global climate change and is used in a range of hydrological, meteorological, and climatological applications. As needed for most modelling and climate analysis applications. Remote sensing (RS) and geographic information system (GIS) have found wide application areas in climate change analyses also this can be used for LST calculation. There are various sensor whose data is useful in generating LST such as: advanced very high resolution radiometer (AVHRR), moderate resolution imaging spectroradiometer (MODIS), Landsat-8, and many more. LST can be estimated by using many algorithms i.e. split-window (SW), dual-angle (DA), single-channel (SC).

https://www.mdpi.com/2072-4292/11/8/974 https://www.sron.nl/remote-sensing-greenhouse-gases https://www.mdpi.com/journal/remotesensing/special_issues/rs_lst 63. Consider the following States: 1. Chhattisgarh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Maharashtra 4. Odisha With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order? (a) 2-3-1-4 (b) 2-3-4-1 (c) 3-2-4-1 (d) 3-2-1-4 Explanation 1. Chattisgarh has 41.14 % of forest cover to total area of state. 2. Madhya Pradesh has 25% 3. Maharashtra has 16.5 % of forest cover to total area of state. 4. Odisha has 32.3 %



https://www.mdpi.com/2072-4292/11/8/974

https://www.sron.nl/remote-sensing-greenhouse-gases

https://www.mdpi.com/journal/remotesensing/special_issues/rs_lst






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So in ascending order it would be Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Chhattisgarh. So the correct answer is option C. 64. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation Statements 1 is correct- Global warming is a major concern, as climate change melts Arctic permafrost and releases large amounts of methane into the atmosphere. Statement 2 is correct- Methane hydrates exist under the sea floor and in sandstone deep beneath the Arctic tundra, holding potentially vast reserves of natural gas. Statement 3 is correct- Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH-. Thus Option D is correct.

65. Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation Agricultural crop residue burning contribute towards the emission of greenhouse gases (CO2, N2O, CH4), air pollutants (CO, NH3, NOx, SO2, non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHC), ozone, volatile organic compounds), particulates matter and smoke thereby posing threat to human health. Thus, Option D is correct.

66. Consider the following pairs:

Sea Bordering Country

1. Adriatic Sea Albania

2. Black Sea Croatia

3. Caspian sea Kazakhstan

4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco

5. Red Sea Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only








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(c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Explanation 1.

So option 1 is correct. 2.

So option 2 is Incorrect 3.

So option 3 is correct 4.

So option 4 is correct 5.

So option 5 is incorrect. So the correct option is B.








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67. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years? (a) China (b) India (c) Myanmar (d) Vietnam Explanation India is the largest exporter of rice in the world.

So option B is correct 68. Consider the following pairs:

Glacier River

1. Bandarpunch Yamuna

2. Bara Shigri Chenab

3. Milam Mandakini

4. Siachen Nubra

5. Zemu Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 3 and 5 Explanation 1. The glacier at the base of Bandarpoonch peak feeds the Hanuman Ganga River which joins the Yamuna so option 1 is incorrect. 2. Bara Shigri feds river Chenab . So option 2 is correct. 3. The Milam glacier is the source of the Goriganga River. So option 3 is incorrect 4. River Nubra is fed by Siachen Glacier so option 4 is correct. 5. Zemu Glacier drains the east side of Kanchenjunga, and feeds the river teesta .so option 5 is incorrect. So correct option is A 69. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These

chemicals are used as (a) pesticides in agriculture (b) preservatives in processed foods








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(c) fruit-ripening agents (d) moisturising agents in cosmetics Explanation

Carbofuran is a broad spectrum N-methyl carbamate insecticide widely used in agriculture .

Methyl parathion is an insecticide and acaricide used to control boll weevils and many biting or sucking insect pests of agricultural crops . It kills insects by contact, stomach and respiratory action. Methyl parathion is available in dust, emulsifiable concentrate, ULV liquid, microencapsules and wettable powder formulations.

Phorate is a Restricted Use Pesticide (RUP) and is among the most poisonous chemicals commonly used for pest control.

Triazophos is an organic thiophosphate and an organothiophosphate insecticide. Thus, Option D is correct. 70. Consider the following statements: 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all

the wetlands in the territory of India. 2. The Wetlands [Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based

on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention. 3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment

regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation Statement 1 is incorrect: Ramsar convention mandates protection of only those sites that are enlisted under RAMSAR criteria. Statement 2 is incorrect: Based on the directives of the 2006 National Environment Policy and the recommendations made by the National Forest Commission, the Central Government notified the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules in 2010. Statement 3 is correct: As per THE WETLANDS (CONSERVATION AND MANAGEMENT) RULES, 2010 wetland" means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland covered under the notification of the Government of India in the Ministry of Environment and Forest. Thus, Option C is correct. 71. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the

'Old World'? (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber (b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber (c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane (d) Rubber, coffee and wheat








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Explanation Tobacco, cocoa and rubber were originally domesticated or cultivated in the 'NewWorld' (America) and

introduced into the 'OldWorld’ (Asia and Africa). Cotton and Wheat are being cultivated in India since very ancient times. People of Mehrgarh (Baluchistan, Pakistan) cultivated Cotton during Neolithic age. Wheat was cultivated by people of Harappan civilisation and Vedic Aryans. 72. Consider the following statements: 1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. 2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. 3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation Statement 1 is correct: Asiatic lions are slightly smaller than African lions. At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only natural abode of the Asiatic lion. Statement 2 is incorrect: Double-hump camels are found naturally in Tibet, Mountain regions of China, Mangolia, Pakistan and also in mountain regions of Afghanistan. Statement 3 is incorrect: One horned rhino is found in India, Pakistan , nepal and lower reached of Bhutan. Thus, Option A is correct. 73. Consider the following pairs :

Famous place River

1. Pandharpur Chandrabhaga

2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery

3. Hampi Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

Pandharpur is located on the banks of Bhima River. This river is also referred to as Chandrabhaga River because it resembles the shape of the Moon.

Kaveri and its tributary the Kollidam are the two major rivers draining Tiruchirappalli.

Hampi was a prosperous, wealthy and grand city near Tungabhadra River NOT Malaprabha river. Malaprabha river flows in western parts of Karnataka.

74. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because (a) poverty rates vary from State to State (b) price levels vary from State to State








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(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State (d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State

In India, Official poverty lines are higher in some states than in other because of price levels vary from state to state.

Thus, Option B is correct. 75. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique

and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere? (a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions (b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones (c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth (d) Reducing the global warming Explanation

Hence correct option is D, i.e. reducing the global warming. 76. In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned? (a) Extraction of rare earth elements (b) Natural gas extraction technologies (c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles (d) Waste-to-energy technologies Explanation

Plasma gasification is an extreme thermal process using plasma which converts organic matter into a syngas (synthesis gas) which is primarily made up of hydrogen and carbon monoxide. A plasma torch powered by an electric arc is used to ionize gas and catalyze organic matter into syngas, with slag remaining as a byproduct. It is used commercially as a form of waste treatment and has been tested for the gasification of municipal solid waste, biomass, industrial waste, hazardous waste, and solid hydrocarbons, such as coal, oil sands, petcoke and oil shale.

Waste to Energy Limited has as its core WTE technology a Fast Pyrolysis Reactor (FPR) that will thermo chemically decompose any organic or carbon material into energy rich oil and gas. Pyrolysis is the thermochemical decomposition of organic material at elevated temperatures in the absence of oxygen or any halogen. It involves the simultaneous change of chemical composition and physical phase, and is irreversible.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plasma_gasification http://www.biogreen-energy.com/ 77. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park (c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park (d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve.



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plasma_(physics)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Organic_matter

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Syngas

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydrogen

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carbon_monoxide

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plasma_torch

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plasma_torch

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electric_arc

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Catalysis

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Syngas

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slag

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Waste_treatment

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Municipal_solid_waste

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biomass

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Industrial_waste

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hazardous_waste

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydrocarbons

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coal

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oil_sands

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Petroleum_coke

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oil_shale

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plasma_gasification

http://www.biogreen-energy.com/






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Explanation Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (ABR)

ABR in situated at the southern-most end of the Western Ghats and spread over two southern states Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It was established in 2001. It is named after Agastya Mala peak that rises up to almost 1868 metres above sea level, in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. In March 2016, it was included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO. ABR covers an area of 3,500 sq km at an altitude ranging from 100 metres to 1,868 metres above the Mean Sea Level. It covers Peppara and Shendurney wildlife sanctuaries and parts of the Neyyar sanctuary in Kerala and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu. Its flora mostly consists of tropical forests and is home to 2,254 species of higher plants including about 400 that are endemic. About 400 Red Listed Plants, 125 species of orchids and rare, endemic and threatened plants have been recorded from the reserve. It is also home to rare endimic animals include tiger, Asian Elephant, and Nilgiri Tahr. It is home to Kanikaran tribe, one of the oldest surviving ancient tribes in the world.

Thus, Option A is correct. 78. Consider the following statements: 1. Some species of turtles are herbivores. 2. Some species of fish are herbivores. 3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores. 4. Some species of snakes are viviparous. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation Statement 1 is correct: The green turtle is the second largest after the leatherback. They can weigh up to 500 lbs (225 kg) and reach four feet (1.2 m) in length. The adult green sea turtle is a herbivore, dining on seagrasses, seaweeds, algae and other forms of marine plant life. Statement 2 is correct: Herbivorous fishes are fishes that eat plant material. Surgeonfish and parrotfish are two familiar MAR examples, often seen browsing and scraping on reef algae. Statement 3 is correct: Marine mammals represent a variety of ecological roles, including herbivores (manatees), filter feeders (baleen whales), and top predators (killer whales). Sirenians also spend their whole lives in water. They are the only entirely herbivorous group of marine mammals. Statement 4 is correct: Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles. Boa constrictors and green anacondas are two examples of viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young with no eggs involved at any stage of development. Thus, Option D is correct 79. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife Naturally found in

1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River

2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River

3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only








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(d) 1, 2 and 3 80. Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into environment? (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems. (b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children. (c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields. (d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants. Explanation

Microbeads are tiny pieces of non-biodegradable plastic measuring less than 1mm. These are widely used in face washes, body scrubs, soaps, toothpaste and other such toiletries. They are mainly made up of polyethylene (PE). It may also contain polypropylene (PP), polyethylene terephthalate (PET), polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA) and nylon.

Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water.

It is estimated that over 663 different species were adversely impacted by marine debris. These microbeads escape filtration and treatment and finally end up in drains, rivers and water bodies which have ecotoxicological consequences. Microbeads entering a water system could become a toxin carrier having toxicity 1000 times higher than the water surrounding it. These absorb long-lasting toxic chemicals like petrol, polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs), polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), pesticides, engine oil, industrial effluents all of which moves up in the food chain.

Thus, Option A is correct. 81. Building 'Kalyaana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of (a) Chalukya (b) Chandela (c) Rashtrakuta (d) Vijayanagara Explanation

Kalyaana Mandapa or Marriage Hall was anotable feature in the templeconstruction in the kingdom ofVijayanagara.

The images of Main temple God and Main goddess were moved to Kalyaana Mandapa during the festival of Mahanavmi.

In earlier times this building was absent in temples. 82. Consider the following statements : 1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as Amil'. 2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution. 3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation 1. Amil was responsible for revenue collection in the revenue administration ofDelhi Sultanate.








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2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhiwas NOT an ancient indigenousinstitution. This system was originally an Arabic practice. It was adopted by Turks from Arabs and the Turks brought it to India. For the first time Iqtas were distributed in India by Muhammad Ghori. 3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came intoexistence during the reign ofMUGHALS NOT DURING THE REIGN OF KhaljiSultans of Delhi. 83. Consider the following statements : 1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar. 2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation 1. Saint Nimbarka(1090 AD – 1162 AD) was a NOT contemporaryof Akbar (1542 AD – 1605 AD). 2. Saint Kabir (1440 AD – 1510 AD) was NOT influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi (1564 AD – 1624 AD) because Kabir lived much earlier than Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. 84. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements : 1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'. 2. In Lord Chelmsford's War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians

for World War. 3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal

by the colonial rulers. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation 1. On 2nd March 1917 ina public meeting in Karachi, Mahatma Gandhi insisted on abolition of indenture system

by May 31, 1917. Due this pressure of Mahatma Gandhi and other Indian nationalists indenture labour system was abolished by government same year later.

2. Viceroy Lord Chelmsford called a War Conference at Delhi for 27 April 1918. Mahatma Gandhi supported resolution for Indian support to Britain in World war. Gandhiji was enthralled by the idea that by serving in the army Indians would develop courageousness and thus enhance their ability to become courageous satyagrahis.

3. Consequent upon the breaking ofSalt Law by Indian people, theIndian National Congress wasdeclared illegal IN JANUARY 1932 by the colonialrulers.

85. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs :

Person Position held

1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru President, All India Liberal Federation

2. K. C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly

3. P. C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of India








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Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation 1. Sir Tej BahadurSapru was President, All India Liberal Federation. 2. K. C. Neogy was member of Indian Constituent Assembly from West Bengal. 3. P. C. Joshi was the first general secretary of the Communist Party of India from 1935–47. 86. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the followingstatements is not correct? (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar. (a) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses. (c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons. (d) Tansen invented many Ragas. Explanation

Actual name of Tansen was Ram Tanu Pandey. He was given title of Tansen by Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior. Emperor Akbar gave him title of Mian.

87. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

(a) Humayun (b) Akbar (c) Jahangir (d) Shah Jahan Explanation

Prior to Akbar’s reign only narrative paintings were made. Akbar ordered making of portrait album of all his grandees/royal servants.

Akbar's purpose in having the portraits made is thus described by Abul Fazl in the following words: “An immense album was thus formed”.

It was during Akbar’s reign that emphasis was shifted fromillustrated manuscripts to album andindividual portrait

88. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone? (a) Manas National Park (b) Namdapha National Park (c) Neora Valley National Park (d) Valley of Flowers National Park Explanation

Valley of Flowers is a vibrant and splendid national park reposing in West Himalayas. Nestled in Uttarakhand, this alluring place is famous for its charming meadows of alpine flowers. Endowed with a diverse range of endemic flora, it is picturesque in its beauty. This lush region is also home to some rare and endangered animal species. You may spot animals like Asiatic black deer, snow leopard, musk deer, red fox, brown bear and blue sheep. High in the lofty Himalayas of the Garhwal region sprawls this enchanting valley. Valley of Flowers lies completely in the temperate alpine zone.








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Thus, Option D is correct 89. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (a) Department of Science and Technology (b) Ministry of Labour and Employment (c) NITI Aayog (d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Explanation

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.

AlM's objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.

Option C is correct. 90. On 21st June, the Sun (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle (a) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle (c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator (d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn Explanation

On 21st june, the Sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Cancer because the sun shifts to the Northern hemisphere in this time hence the sun do not set below the horizon at Arctic circle and 24hrs day is observed.

So the correct answer is option A. 91. With reference to Mughal India, what is / are the difference / differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar? 1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were

holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection. 2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation 1. Those Mughal officer who received their salarly by way of land grants (Jagir) were known as Jagirdars. Thus

Jagirdars were holders of landassignments in lieu of judicial andpolice duties. 2. Zamindarswere landlords or big land owners. They were holders of revenue rightswithout obligation to

perform anyduty other than revenue collection. 3. Land assignments to Jagirdarswere NOT hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were hereditary. 92. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings. (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless. (c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.








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(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits Explanation The land reform legislations passed by Indian Government during 1950s were guided by following main objectives:

Abolition of intermediaries.

Tenancy reforms to regulate fair rent and provide security to tenure.

Ceilings on holdings and distribution of surplus land among landless.

Consolidation of holdings and prevention of their further fragmentation and

Development of cooperative farming. With reference to land reforms in independent India:

Land Ceiling laws were applied to family holdings as well as individualholdings. The major aim of land reforms wasproviding agricultural land to allthe landless.

Land reforms were not connected to cultivation of cashcrops in any way directly as a predominant form ofcultivation.

Land reforms permitted many exemptions to the ceiling limits such as for GARDEN LANDS, FOREST LAND AND BARREN LAND ETC.

So statement ‘B’ is correct. 93. The Global Competitiveness. Report is published by the (a) International Monetary Fund (b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (c) World Economic Forum (d) World Bank Explanation

The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum (WEF).

WEF’s GCR assesses competitiveness of countries to provide insight into drivers of their productivity and prosperity. GCR scores are calculated on basis of 12 categories called ‘pillars of competitiveness which covers both business and social indicators.

It includes pillars such as institutions, infrastructure, health and primary education, labour market efficiency, financial market development, technological readiness and market size.

Thus, Option C is Correct. 94. Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813' : 1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China. 2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company. 3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

Charter Act of 1813 expressly asserted the Crown's sovereignty over British India. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.








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The revenues of India came under the control of British Parliament clearly in 1858. This process started with Pits’ India act 1784.

95. With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements : 1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries. 2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation

It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries because foreign goods were boycotted. National Council of Education (or NCE) was an organisation founded by Indian nationalists in Bengal in 1906 to promote science and technology as part of Swadeshi industrialisation movement. It established the Bengal National College and Bengal Institute which would later merge to form Jadavpur University.

96. Consider the following pairs

Movement/ Organization Leader

1. All India AntiUntouchability League

Mahatma Gandhi

2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

3. Self-Respect Movement E. V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League was established by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932. 2. All India Kisan Sabhawas established by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1936. 3. Self-Respect Movement started by E. V. Ramaswami Naicker in 1925. 97. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site? (a) Chanhudaro (b) Kot Diji (c) Sohgaura (d) Desalpur Explanation

Chanhudaro (located in Sind), Kot Diji (located in Sind), and Desalpur (located in Gujarat) are Harappan sites.

Sohgaura(located in U.P.) is a site of Mauryan Period. A copper plate inscription belonging to the reign of Chandragupta Maurya was found at this place.








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98. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

(a) Kanganahalli (b) Sanchi (c) Shahbazgarhi (d) Sohgaura Explanation

Kanaganahalli is a Buddhist site located in Gulbarga District in Karnataka, India

During the excavations (2000 to 2002) a stone sculptured slab bearing the name Ranyo Ashoka was found here.

It is first such inscribed portrait of Ashoka. It was found at Kanaganahalliwas unearthed from the ruined Buddhist stupa.

99. Consider the following : 1. Deification of the Buddha 2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas 3. Image worship and rituals Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Explanation

Mahayana Buddhism started deification or worship of Buddha. Mahayana monks were known as Bodhisattvas. They followed the path of Bodhisattvas.

Image worship and rituals were introduced by Mahayanist in Buddhism. 100.With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following

statements is correct? (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people. (b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire. (c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages. (d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer. Explanation

Forced labour(Vishti) became more common during Gupta period. It was considered a source of income for the state. It was kind of tax paid by people to state.




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