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Derivative of the inverse of a function property
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Derivative of the Inverse of a Function
I can see clearly now.
http://cs.armstrong.edu/greenlaw/climbing/vinson/Scan121.jpg
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What is your conjecture?
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For any point (a, b) on an invertible function,the derivative of the inverse of the function evaluated at bis equal to the reciprocal of the derivative of the function evaluated at a.
If f (x) is an invertible function, then for any point (a, b) on f (x)
(f1)'(b) = 1f '(a)
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* Note: Tangents intersecton y = x line
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