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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
GENERAL ENGINEERING
AND APPLIED SCIENCES By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
ANDRADE, Caroline T.
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
LORENZO, Luer Breech B.
RIVERA, Billy Joe S.
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
SANTOLLO, Dan Alvin
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
THERMODYNAMICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
GARCIA, Virginia Nonna H.
1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek
words meaning _________.
a. transformation of heat
b. transformation of energy
c. movement of heat
d. movement of matter
2. What is the Si unit for temperature?
a. Kelvin
b. Celsius
c. Fahrenheit
d. Rankine
3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object
because of the difference in temperature is called
a. heat
b. temperature
c. thermodynamics cycle
d. energy flow
4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a
substance changes from one phase to another.
a. specific heat
b. heat of expansion
c. latent heat
d. useful heat
5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.
a. intensive property
b. extensive property
c. volume expansion
d. thermal expansion
6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in
response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.
a. elongation
b. thermal stress
c. expansion contraction
d. thermal expansion
7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.
a. Specific Energy
b. Molecular Energy
c. Internal Energy
d. Phase Energy
8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or
removed to change the temperature of a substance.
a. Specific Heat Capacity
b. Latent Heat
c. Heat of Transformation
d. Internal Heat
9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or
solid phase.
a. Phase Pressure
b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure
c. Specific Pressure
d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure
10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.
a. pressure
b. force
c. volume
d. temperature
11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases
possible for that particular substance.
a. Phase diagram
b. P-T diagram
c. Wein Diagram
d. Histogram
12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.
a. Internal Energy
b. Grand Energy
c. Atomic Energy
d. Elemental Energy
13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1
gram of water by 1 Celsius degree.
a. specific heat
b. latent heat
c. Joule
d. calorie
14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance.
a. movement
b. temperature
c. heat
d. mass
15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.
a. internal KE
b. Atomic kinetic energy
c. Zero-Point Energy
d. Subliminal Energy
16. Convert the change of temperature from 20C to 30C to Kelvin scale.
a. 10 K
b. 293 K
c. 303 K
d. 273 K
17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the useful work obtainable
from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.
a. useful work
b. energy consumed
c. Helmholtz free energy
d. Kinetic Energy
18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the
temperature varies from -15C in winter to 41C in summer?
a. 0.67 m
b. 2.2 m
c. 3.1 m
d. 0.47 m
19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of
house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the
temperature can change by 55C?
a. 0.21 m
b. 0.18 m
c. 0.31 in
d. 0.18 in
20. What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is
at right angles to the suns rays at the top of the atmosphere?
a. 1400 J
b. 6000 J
c. 10000 J
d. 800 J
21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the useful or process-initiating
work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.
a. Du-Pont Potential
b. Gibbs free energy
c. Rabz-Eccles Energy
d. Claussius Energy
22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.
a. heat
b. depleted
c. exhausted
d. work
23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the
equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.
a. vacuum pressure
b. relative humidity
c. absolute pressure
d. vapor pressure
24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no
intermediate liquid stage.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation
25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Sublimation
26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a
temperature change.
a. expand
b. contract
c. change
d. increase
27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of
linear expansion.
a. unrelated to
b. proportional to
c. twice
d. three times
28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from
4C to 0C.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. none of the above
29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.
a. no volume
b. no pressure
c. zero temperature at all scales
d. none of the above
30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the
temperature rises?
a. the relative humidity increases
b. the relative humidity decreases
c. the relative humidity remains constant
d. the air would eventually become saturated
31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.
a. placidity
b. mass flow
c. convection current
d. heat transfer
32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.
a. elastic material
b. transponder material
c. Teflon
d. blackbody
33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the
material.
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Radiation
d. Emission
34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadros number of atoms/molecules.
a. mass
b. matter
c. gram-mole
d. volume
35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.
a. velocity of propagation
b. escape velocity
c. Maxwell speed Distribution
d. terminal velocity
36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a fan, is used to produce the
fluid flow.
a. Forced Convection
b. External Convection
c. Placid Convection
d. Thermionic Convection
37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process
used to reach that state.
a. cycle
b. path function
c. point function
d. process
38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular
change in state.
a. path function
b. point function
c. process
d. cycle
39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.
a. wall
b. boundary
c. interface
d. intersection
40. A closed system is also known as _________.
a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume
41. Open system is also known as _________.
a. isolated system
b. closed container
c. control mass
d. control volume
42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
a. 290
b. 63
c. -120
d. -256
43. When a solid melts,
a. the temperature of the substance increases.
b. the temperature of the substance decreases.
c. heat leaves the substance.
d. heat enters the substance.
44. How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35C to 55C.
a. 15
b. 1500
c. 1.5 x 10^4
d. 6.3 x 10^4
45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has?
a. temperature
b. amount of material
c. type of material
d. shape of the object
46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?
a. liquids
b. gases
c. metals
d. solids other than metals
47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature.
Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched?
a. aluminium
b. brass
c. glass
d. concrete
48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume
a. increases
b. decreases
c. stays the same
d. none of the above
49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its
a. pressure
b. Celsius temperature
c. Kelvin temperature
d. Fahrenheit temperature
50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled,
the volume is
a. increased fourfold
b. doubled
c. reduced by half
d. decreased by a quarter
51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the
molecules in the gas?
a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2
b. it increases by a factor of 2
c. it increases by factor of 4
d. none of the above
52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.
a. enthalpy
b. entropy
c. law of diminishing return
d. Lenz Law
53. No volume changes occur during this type of process
a. Isobaric process
b. Isomillimetric process
c. Isocaloric process
d. Isochoric process
54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________
process.
a. adiabatic
b. isochoric
c. isobaric
d. zero work
55. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100C, the entropy of water
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. none of the above
56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.
a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Isolated system
d. Isoenergetic system
57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.
a. boiling temperature
b. normal boiling point
c. triple point
d. point of infliction
58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation
temperature.
a. dry steam
b. current steam
c. wet steam
d. aerosol
59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate
receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.
a. dry steam
b. wet steam
c. phase steam
d. flash steam
60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.
a. dryness fraction
b. Vaporization
c. fusion
d. super heated steam
61. What device measures infrared radiation below?
a. thermocouple
b. thermopile
c. thermodynamic device
d. thermos
62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,
a. any holes in the object expand as well
b. any holes in the object remain the same
c. mass increases
d. molecular activities would cease
63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water
1 F from 63 F to 64 F.
a. one Joule
b. one calorie
c. one watt
d. one BTU
64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.
a. volume
b. power
c. heat
d. pressure
65. Thermos was invented by _________.
a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
b. Sir Fredrich the Great
c. Thomas Edison
d. Sir James Dewar
66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.
a. Isochoric
b. Isothermal
c. Isobaric
d. Isovolumic
67. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________
respectively.
a. raising the temp and lowering the temp
b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature
c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure
d. lowering the temp and raising the temp
68. The statement heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body is governed
by _________.
a. the first law of thermodynamics
b. the second law of thermodynamics
c. the third law of thermodynamics
d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics
69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler
to a hotter body
a. Carnots statement
b. Clausius statement
c. Rankine statement
d. Gauss statement
70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another
molecule.
a. mean free path
b. path allowance
c. compacting factor
d. molecular space
71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.
a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2
b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2
c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2
d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2
72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?
a. 1 x 10^5 tons
b. 2 x 10^6 tons
c. 6 x 10^15 tons
d. 8 x 10^10 tons
73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm
long.
a. surface pressure
b. gage pressure
c. standard atmospheric pressure
d. isobaric pressure
74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at
every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.
a. Torricellis law
b. Barometric law
c. Newtons Second law
d. Pascals law
75. What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyles Law?
a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. Gauge Pressure
c. Surface Pressure
d. Isobaric Pressure
76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.
a. 62.4 lb
b. 9.81 lb
c. 76 lb
d. 760 lb
77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.
a. force per length
b. surface tension
c. Pressure
d. Density
78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by
_________.
a. Archimedes Principle
b. Evangelistas Law
c. Torricellis Theorem
d. Bernoullis Equation
79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called
_________.
a. diffusion
b. viscosity
c. streamline flow
d. solution
80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon
centigrade and used Celsius Instead?
a. 1950
b. 1936
c. 1957
d. 1948
81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to
produce saturation.
a. relative humidity
b. triple point temperature
c. dew point
d. critical point
82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to
its initial state.
a. process
b. system
c. equilibrium
d. cycle
83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.
a. Bulk Properties
b. Innate Properties
c. Natural Properties
d. Inside Properties
84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic
process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower
pressure state.
a. Rankine Process
b. Carnot Cycle
c. Joule-Thomson process
d. Refrigeration process
85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Burnign Cycle
c. Shikki Cycle
d. Shapa R Elli Cycle
86. Twenty grams of ice at 0C melts to water at 0C. How much does the entropy of the 20g
change in this process?
a. 30.5 J/K
b. 24.6 J/K
c. 21.3 J/K
d. 15.7 J/K
87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a. conservation of mass
b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
c. action reaction
d. conservation of energy
88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in
internal energy of the system.
a. 1400 J
b. 1700 J
c. 1900 J
d. 1500 J
89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is
heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200
kPa. Find the work done on the system.
a. 5 kJ
b. 15 kJ
c. 10 kJ
d. 12 kJ
90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180C and exhausts directly into
the air at 100C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?
a. 11.28 %
b. 36.77 %
c. 20.36 %
d. 17.66 %
91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.
a. Latent heat
b. Sensible heat
c. Specific heat
d. Heat of Fusion
92. Who coined the term latent heat?
a. John Thompson
b. Studey Baker
c. Joe di Maggio
d. Joseph Black
93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?
a. Latent Heat
b. Sensible Heat
c. Specific Heat
d. Heat of Fusion
94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0
Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.
a. First Law of thermodynamics
b. Second Law of thermodynamics
c. Third Law of thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics
95. One calorie is equal to _________.
a. 1/180 W.h
b. 1/860 W.h
c. 1/360 W.h
d. 1/250 W.h
96. A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place
according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.
a. Polytropic process
b. Entropy
c. Ideal Gas Law
d. Carnot Cycle
97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the
system remain constant with respect to time.
a. streamline flow
b. steady flow
c. constant flow
d. algebraic flow
98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is
the _________.
a. Otto Cycle
b. Lazare Cycle
c. Isothermal Cycle
d. Carnot Cycle
99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine
the pressure at this point
a. 733.33 kPa
b. 833.33 kPa
c. 933.33 kPa
d. 633.33 kPa
100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?
a. Lazare Carnot
b. Sadi Carnot
c. William Thompson
d. Rudolf Classius
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
CHEMISTRY General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
GIRAO, Edward Joseph D.
1. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their
individual relative masses.
A. mass spectrometer
B. barometer
C. hygrometer
D. hydrometer
2. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.
A. isotope
B. hydrates
C. ion
D. mixture
3. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:
A. combustion reactions
B. replacement reactions
C. metathesis
D. neutralization
4. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of
reaction is
A. decomposition
B. combination
C. displacement
D. double displacement
5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is
A. 76 mm Hg
B. 760 cm Hg
C. 760 mm Hg
D. 7.6 cm Hg
6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called
A. Calcination
B. Roasting
C. Smelting
D. Froth flotation process
7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?
A. volume
B. mass
C. pressure
D. density
8. A device used to measure density.
A. manometer
B. hydrometer
C. spectrometer
D. densimeter
9. The statement mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction is known as:
A. The law of conservation of mass
B. The law of constant composition
C. The law of multiple proportions
D. The law of chemical reaction
10. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is greater than 2.0
A. Ionic Bond
B. Covalent Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
11. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity
difference between atoms is less than 1.5?
A. Covalent Bond
B. Ionic Bond
C. Metallic Bond
D. Chemical Bond
12. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic number 4. What is
the charge on the Be atom?
A. +4
B. +8
C. -4
D. Neutral
13. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is
called:
A. period
B. group
C. family
D. row
14. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called
A. polymorphs
B. hydrocarbons
C. polycarbon
D. plastics
15. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called
A. viscosity
B. elasticity
C. glueyness
D. stickiness
16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called
A. reductant
B. reducing agent
C. oxidant
D. acceptor
17. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the
reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:
A. the law of conservation of mass
B. the law of definite proportion
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
18. When the same elements can form two different two compounds, the ratio of masses of one
of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the
other element. This is known as:
A. The law of constant composition
B. The law of conservation of mass
C. The law of multiple proportion
D. The law of conservation of energy
19. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called:
A. specific gravity
B. relative gravity
C. specific weight
D. relative weight
20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
21. The SI unit of temperature is
A. Fahrenheit
B. Kelvin
C. Celsius
D. Rankine
22. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by
mass. This is known as:
A. the law of constant composition
B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
23. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10
neutrons.
A. 10 amu
B. 19 amu
C. 15 amu
D. 21 amu
24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called
A. atomic number
B. percent abundance
C. atomic weight
D. oxidation number
25. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called
A. momentum
B. mass
C. inertia
D. velocity
26. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.
A. precision
B. error
C. tolerance
D. accuracy
27. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.
A. accuracy
B. precision
C. error
D. margin
28. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an identification tag for a substance.
A. mass
B. molarity
C. density
D. volume
29. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called
A. quarks
B. ions
C. isotope
D. warks
30. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally called Prousts Law is now known as
A. The law of multiple proportion
B. The law of definite proportion
C. The law of conservation of mass
D. The law of compounds
31. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron?
A. 1837 times
B. 7300 times
C. 1829 times
D. 1567 times
32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called
A. ions
B. quarks
C. isotopes
D. compounds
33. The forces that hold atoms together are called
A. mechanical bond
B. formula bond
C. atomic bind
D. chemical bond
34. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called
A. ion
B. isotope
C. positron
D. polymer
35. A positive ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
36. A negative ion is called
A. positron
B. anion
C. cation
D. quark
37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called
A. ionic bonding
B. covalent bonding
C. polar bonding
D. metallic bonding
38. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called
A. group
B. period
C. series
D. row
39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called
A. period
B. group
C. series
D. column
40. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure
A. is decreased to half
B. is doubled
C. is increased to four times
D. remains unchanged
41. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called
A. argand diagram
B. constellation diagram
C. electron dot diagram
D. structural formula
42. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to
their group number?
A. transition group
B. noble gas
C. representative or main group
D. metals
43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a p orbital?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration
A. isoelectronic
B. isometric
C. iso-ionic
D. isotope
45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?
A. Group 4
B. Group 5
C. Group 6
D. Group 7
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ENGINEERING
ECONOMICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want
A. Necessity
B. Utility
C. Luxuries
D. Discount
2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the
owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.
A. Common stock
B. Voting stock
C. Pretend stock
D. Non par value stock
3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.
A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Use value
D. Fair value
4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a
difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.
A. Loss
B. Depreciation
C. Extracted
D. Gain
5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that
one suppliers actions significantly affect prices and supply.
A. Oligopoly
B. Monopsony
C. Monopoly
D. Perfect competition
6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods
substitute.
A. Monosony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony
7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.
A. Salvage value
B. Price
C. Book value
D. Scrap value
8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.
A. Devaluation
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Depreciation
9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely
formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.
A. Cartel
B. Monopoly
C. Corporation
D. Competitors
10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.
A. Monopoly
B. Monophony
C. Oligopoly
D. Perfect competition
11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.
A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Bilateral Monopoly
12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the
general price level.
A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Devaluation
D. Depreciation
13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.
A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bonds
14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
A. Interest
B. Amortization
C. Annuity
D. Bonds
15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.
A. Maker
B. Store
C. Bargain center
D. Port
16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate
A. Stock value
B. Par value
C. Interest
D. Maturity value
17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many
sellers.
A. Bilateral monopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Duopsony
D. Duopoly
18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in
one business market or commodity.
A. Oligopoly
B. Duopoly
C. Duopsony
D. duopoly
19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the
beginning of the payment.
A. Perpetuity
B. Ordinary annuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity
20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.
A. Tally
B. Par value
C. Check and balance
D. Break even
21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be
retrieved.
A. Sunk cost
B. Fixed costs
C. Depletion cost
D. Construction cost
22. An obligation with no condition attach is called
A. Personal
B. Gratuitous
C. Concealed
D. Private
23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.
A. Operation costs
B. Construction cost
C. Depletion cost
D. Production cost
24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.
A. Marginal cost
B. Marginal revenue
C. Extra profit
D. Prime cost
25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.
A. Junk value
B. Salvage value
C. Scrap value
D. Book value
26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has
been charged to depreciation.
A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Market value
27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all
materials that go into production is called
A. Net cost
B. Maintenance cost
C. Prime cost
D. Operating cost
28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the
future is called
A. Market value
B. Net value
C. Discount
D. Interest
29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is
A. Prime cost
B. Marginal cost
C. Differential cost
D. Sunk cost
30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or
maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.
A. Annuity
B. Bond
C. Amortization
D. Collateral
31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.
A. Market value
B. Fair value
C. Salvage value
D. Book value
32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.
A. Physical inventory
B. Counting principle
C. Stock assessment
D. Periodic material update
33. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other
material which will be sold.
A. Fixed assets
B. Deferred charges
C. Current asset
D. Liability
34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by
the injured party to recover damages.
A. Fraud
B. Tort
C. Libel
D. Scam
35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time
A. Depletion
B. Capitalized cost
C. Perpetuity
D. Inflation
36. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that
will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies
considerably.
A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Demands
D. Luxury
37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.
A. Utility
B. Supply
C. Stocks
D. Goods
38. It is sometimes called the second hand value
A. Scrap value
B. Salvage value
C. Book value
D. Par value
39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.
A. Deflation
B. Depletion
C. Declination
D. Depreciation
40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.
A. Single proprietorship
B. Party
C. Corporation
D. Partnership
41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one
person.
A. Partnership
B. Proprietorship
C. Corporation
D. Joint venture
42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.
A. Dummy person
B. Minors
C. Demented persons
D. Convict
43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.
A. Satisfaction
B. Luxury
C. Necessity
D. Utility
44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of
vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
A. Perfect competition
B. Monophony
C. Monopoly
D. Cartel
45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money
is available after the required necessities have been obtained.
A. Commodities
B. Necessities
C. Luxuries
D. Supplies
46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.
A. Authorized capital
B. Paid off capital
C. Subscribed capital
D. Investment
47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.
A. Ledger
B. Spreadsheet
C. Journal
D. Logbook
48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.
A. Life span
B. Economic life
C. Operating life
D. Profitable life
49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain
region.
A. Permit
B. Royalty
C. License
D. Franchise
50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.
A. Fair value
B. Par value
C. Market value
D. Book value
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ENGINEERING
MANAGEMENT General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
LAQUI, Louise Ruelyn J.
1. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and
controlling an organizations resources to achieve its mission and objectives.
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision
2. Refers to the activity combining technical knowledge with the ability to organize and
coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.
A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club
3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except
A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education
4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about
nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product
concept to a finished physical term.
A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development
6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts
are tested for workability.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production
personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing
8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the
construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction
process.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government
9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the companys customers to meet
their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.
A. Construction
B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales
10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or
organization requiring his services.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government
11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government
performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the
activities of various institutions, public or private.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting
12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is
assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.
A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting
13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people
performing specific tasks.
A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting
14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a
manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.
A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving
15. The first step in Decision making process is to
A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity
16. The last step in decision making process is to
A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results
17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.
A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation
18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational
and analytical.
A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation
19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and
determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision
20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies
and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
21. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with
allocated resources.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time
with available resources.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning
26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an
organizations marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans
27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in
broad terms and by product family.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans
28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes
financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans
29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms
of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the companys strategic plan.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan
30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are
mostly concerned with these planes.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken
by middle and top management.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur
repeatedly.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about
recurring situations or function.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules
34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules
35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules
36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are
unlikely to be repeated.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans
37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains
where the required funds will come from.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement
38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement
39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to
support a program.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement
40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to
accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure
41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure
42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional
activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization
43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially single business
firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization
44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those
involved with a certain type of product or customer.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization
45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related
industries.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization
46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division
manager and to a project or group manager.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization
47. Refers to a managers right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority
48. A staff specialists right to give advice to a superior.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority
49. A specialists right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless
of where the personnel are in the organization.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority
50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.
A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee
51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.
A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee
52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits,
selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.
A. Resourcing
B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
D. Staffing
53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of
the organization.
A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and
goals.
A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.
A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that
those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.
A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment
57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to
succeed on the job.
A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Selection
D. Training
58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information
about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-
workers.
A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards
59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present
job.
A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards
60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater
responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.
A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer
61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility
in the organization.
A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer
62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached
to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee
until he is offered a higher position.
A. Separation
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer
63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.
A. Separation
B. Transfer
C. Termination
D. Demotion
64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.
A. Counseling
B. Communication
C. Hypnotism
D. Language
65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels
in the organization.
A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function
66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit
themselves to the organizations objectives.
A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function
67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization,
employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.
A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function
68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.
A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal
69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space,
touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.
A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal
70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a
particular goal.
A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Unification
71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:
A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
C. Needs satisfaction
D. Inferiority complex
72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:
A. Maslows Needs Hierarchy Theory
B. Expectancy Theory
C. Herzbergs Two-Factor Theory
D. Gagarins Theory
73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work
behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.
A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
C. Leading
D. Commanding
74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions
within the organization. This describes:
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power
75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests,
it termed as:
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power
76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power
77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be
identified with the former.
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power
78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:
A. A high level of personal drive
B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
C. Charisma
D. Greedy
79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been
achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives
better in the future.
A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
D. Inspection
80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their
occurrence.
A. Feed forward control
B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect
variances are made.
A. Feed forward control
B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in
order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.
A. Feed forward control
B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control
83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in
useful ways.
A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation
84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives
efficiently and effectively.
A. Planning
B. Operations management
C. Evaluation management
D. Backboning
85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the
situation.
A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing
86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the
demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement
of these facilities.
A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing
87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long
each operation in the production process takes.
A. Plotting
B. Scheduling
C. Timetable
D. Anticipating
88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all
material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.
A. Work
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management
89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management
90. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management
91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management
92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.
A. Advertisement
B. Commercial
C. Marketing
D. Sales
93. The four Ps of marketing are the following except:
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Publicity
94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the
product, idea, or service.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached
by their customers.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence
attitudes and behavior.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of
informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea
on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
ENGINEERING
MECHANICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
RIVERA, Billy Joe s.
1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.
A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above
2. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.
A. scalars
B. vectors
C. tensors
D. none of the above
3. The product of a scalar and a vector is a
A. scalar
B. vector
C. tensor
D. none of the above
4. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1
A. moment vector
B. tensor
C. unit vector
D. vector unity
5. It is sometimes called the scalar product.
A. dot product
B. vector product
C. cross product
D. unit scalar
6. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is
used.
A. vector product
B. scalar product
C. dot product
D. vector sum
7. It is sometimes called the vector product.
A. dot product
B. cross product
C. tensor product
D. unit vector
8. Which of the following statements is false?
A. The cross product is commutative.
B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.
C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.
D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.
9. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the
________.
A. line of apsides
B. line of reaction
C. line of vector
D. line of action
10. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.
A. parallel
B. coplanar
C. concurrent
D. two-dimensional
11. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.
A. coplanar
B. two-dimensional
C. A or B
D. none of the above
12. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.
A. internal force
B. external force
C. body force
D. surface force
13. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.
A. continuum translation
B. discrete translation
C. finite translation
D. steady translation
14. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components
about P.
A. Cavalieris Theorem B. Pascals Theorem C. Varignons Theorem D. Torricellis Theorem
15. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.
A. moment
B. momentum
C. impulse
D. torsion
16. A couple is composed of two forces that are
A. equal
B. equal and opposite
C. equal and different lines of action
D. equal, opposite and different lines of action
17. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?
A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.
B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.
C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.
D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.
18. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle , the component of weight (w) parallel to incline is __________.
A. w sin B. w cos C. w tan D. w cot
19. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass
20. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.
A. load
B. shear
C. bear
D. mass
21. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to
A. lbm-ft/s2
B. g-cm/s2
C. kg-m/s2
D. kgf
22. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is
called
A. ground reflected force
B. gravity reflected force
C. ground reaction force
D. gravity reaction force
23. The gravity in the moon is about
A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2
24. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point
called
A. center of force
B. center of reaction
C. center of reflection
D. center of pressure
25. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?
A. mass of the load
B. acceleration of gravity
C. moment arm
D. all of the above
26. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is
called
A. moment arm
B. moment distance
C. lever arm
D. A or C
27. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted
by the force ___________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. is unchanged
D. becomes zero
28. The moment of force is zero when
A. the applied force is zero.
B. the force is applied at the moment axis.
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.
D. all of the above
29. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when
acting in given directions.
A. resolution of forces
B. integration of forces
C. composition of forces
D. quantization of forces
30. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics
A. Gilbert Lewis
B. Stephen Timoshenko
C. J. Gordon
D. A. Cotrell
31. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.
A. Discrete Mechanics
B. Finite Element Method
C. Continuum Mechanics
D. Contact Mechanics
32. Which of the following is an example of contact force?
A. gravitational force
B. magnetic force
C. air resistance force
D. electric force
33. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.
A. dynamic friction
B. static friction
C. kinetic friction
D. sliding friction
34. Given = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if
pulled with a force of 3 N.
A. remain at rest
B. move
C. accelerate
D. B and C
35. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.
B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic
friction.
C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.
D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.
36. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform
accelerations are often referred to as
A. UVATS
B. SUVAT
C. UVATS
D. Either of the above
37. Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the time rate of change of its linear momentum. This is known as Newtons ___________ of motion.
A. Zeroth Law
B. First Law
C. Second Law
D. Third Law
38. It is also known as quantity of motion.
A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. acceleration
39. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely
fills the space it occupies.
A. Finite Element
B. Contact
C. Discrete
D. Continuum
40. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be
made.
A. Brayton Number
B. Knudsen Number
C. Reynolds Number
D. Prandtl Number
41. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles
of the moving continuum body.
A. Material Derivative
B. Continual Derivative
C. Particle Derivative
D. Quantum Derivative
42. Material derivative is also known as __________.
A. substantial derivative
B. commoving derivative
C. convective derivative
D. all of the above
43. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed
configuration is called the ________.
A. displacement vector
B. position vector
C. displacement field
D. position field
44. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.
A. position field
B. action field
C. displacement field
D. path field
45. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.
A. Continuum Mechanics
B. Solid Mechanics
C. Fluid Mechanics
D. Discrete Mechanics
46. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.
A. Particle Image Velocimetry
B. Particle Image Accelerometry
C. Particle Image Flowmeter
D. Particle Image Viscosimetry
47. A fluid at rest has no
A. longitudinal stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress
48. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.
A. compressibility
B. plasticity
C. elasticity
D. viscosity
49. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the
external pressure and internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.
A. Navier Stokes Equations B. Torricelli Equations
C. Reynolds Equations
D. Lagrangian Equations
50. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow
A. Newtonian fluid
B. non-Newtonian fluid
C. Lagrangian fluid
D. non-Lagrangian fluid
51. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?
A. oobleck
B. pudding
C. water
D. paint
52. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then
A. no forces are acting on the object.
B. the forces acting the object are balanced.
C. the object is in equilibrium state.
D. either of the above
53. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.
A. reactant
B. equilibrant
C. buoyant
D. reverse effective force
54. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10 and 15 N at 100 is
A.18 N at 246
B. 18 N at 66
C. 25 N at -114
D. 25 N at 66
55. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act
A. center of gravity
B. centroid
C. center of mass
D. all of the above are correct
56. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will
A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry
B. lie anywhere on the area
C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry
D. not lie on the line of symmetry
57. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also
be called moment of inertia.
A. determine the state of stress in a section
B. calculate the resistance to buckling
C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam
D. all of the above
58. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal
axis to another parallel axis.
A. moment of axis theorem
B. transfer formula
C. parallel axis theorem
D. B or C
59. The moment of force is zero when
A. the applied force is zero
B. the force is applied at the moment axis
C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis
D. all of the above
60. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is
A. 1/5 mr2
B. 2/5 mr2
C. 3/5 mr2
D. 4/5 mr2
61. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is
A. 1/6 mr2
B. 1/3 mr2
C. 1/2 mr2
D. 2/3 mr2
62. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is
distributed about the reference axis.
A. moment of area
B. second moment of area
C. third moment of area
D. fourth moment of area
63. It is the materials ability to resist twisting
A. mass moment of inertia
B. moment of area
C. second moment of area
D. polar moment of area
64. Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. This is known as the ____________.
A. Bernoullis Principle B. Torricellis Principle C. Archimedes Principle D. Pascals Principle
65. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or
partially immersed.
A. Archimedes force B. fluid pressure
C. buoyancy
D. weight reaction
66. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of
weight 3 N. Determine the tension in the string.
A. 13 N
B. 7 N
C. 10 N
D. 3 N
67. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.
A. tends to rise
B. tends to sink
C. A or B
D. none of the above
68. It is the rate of change of velocity
A. displacement
B. acceleration
C. momentum
D. impulse
69. Impulse is equal to ________.
A. force x time
B. change in momentum
C. A or B
D. none of the above
70. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are
known as __________.
A. elastic collisions
B. inelastic collisions
C. static collisions
D. plastic collisions
71. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the
momentum change of the object?
A. 1 N-s
B. 400 N-s
C. 0.5 N-s
D. 200 N-s
72. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the
magnitude of the impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?
A. 1 N-s
B. 5 N-s
C. 10 N-s
D. 20 N-s
73. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.
A. momentum
B. impulse
C. velocity
D. acceleration
74. The SI unit for angular velocity is
A. degrees per second
B. revolutions per second
C. mils per second
D. radians per second
75. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula
A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity
B. mass x linear velocity
C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity
D. mass x angular velocity
76. The time derivative of angular momentum is called
A. angular velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. work
D. torque
77. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system
can be known at once.
A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
B. particle momentum principle
C. particle position principle
D. Bohrs uncertainty principle
78. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is
A. kg-m2
B. kg-m4
C. m4
D. m2
79. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for
determining the internal forces and reactions on that structure.
A. statically determinate
B. statically indeterminate
C. dynamically determinate
D. dynamically indeterminate
80. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant
acceleration without having a known time interval.
A. Bernoullis equation B. Torricellis equation C. Newtons equation D. Cavendishs equation
81. Torricellis equation of motion is
A. Vf 2 = Vi
2 + 2as
B. Vf = Vi + at
C. Vf 2 = Vi
2 + at
D. Vf = Vi + 2as
82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?
A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.
B. It appears to act outward the body.
C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.
D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.
83. Centripetal acceleration
A. changes the direction of the velocity.
B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.
D. changes nothing about velocity.
84. Tangential acceleration
A. changes the direction of the velocity.
B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.
C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.
D. changes nothing about velocity.
85. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic
force manifest.
A. Eforce
B. Tforce
C. Kforce
D. Gforce
86. The value of Gforce is equal to
A. 1.211 x 1041
N
B. 1.211 x 1042
N
C. 1.211 x 1043
N
D. 1.211 x 1044
N
87. The gravitational force constant has the units
A. m3 kg
-1 s
-2
B. N kg-1
s-2
C. m2 kg
-1 s
-2
D. N kg-1
m-1
88. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is
A. 1.02 x 1057
N
B. 1.02 x 10-57
N
C. 1.02 x 10-67
N
D. 1.02 x 1067
N
89. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is
A. 4 x 1011
m3 s
-2
B. 4 x 1014
m3 s
-2
C. 4 x 108 m
3 s
-2
D. 4 x 1010
m3 s
-2
90. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 1022
kg, determine the
acceleration due to gravity on the moon.
A. 1.6 m/s2
B. 2.6 m/s2
C. 3.6 m/s2
D. 0.6 m/s2
91. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat
surface.
A. rolling resistance
B. rolling friction
C. rolling drag
D. either of the above
92. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?
A. type of material
B. dimensions
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
93. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as
A. coefficient of rolling friction
B. coefficient of friction
C. coefficient of resistance
D. rolling friction constant
94. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is
A. 0.0002 0.0010 B. 0.005
C. 0.02
D. 0.3
95. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is
A. 0.0002 0.0010 B. 0.1 0.2 C. 0.01 0.015
D. 0.05 0.06
96. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.
A. factor of safety
B. mechanical factor
C. mechanical advantage
D. mechanical coefficient
97. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.
A. quantum mechanics
B. classical mechanics
C. discrete mechanics
D. continuum mechanics
98. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j 90k (N).
A. 130 N
B. 120 N
C. 100 N
D. 110 N
99. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.
A. 18
B. 16
C. 14
D. 12
100. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = Uxi 4j + 6k and V = 3i + 2j 3k. Determine the component Ux.
A. 5.67
B. 6.67
C. 7.67
D. 8.67
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN
PHYSICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences
By
Randy O. Allado
Emmylou R. Edulan
Jerick D. Lee
Adrian S. Paala
Woodrow B. Pino
ENCODED BY:
SAMONTE, Adrian A.
1. At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure,
the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the
same value. The concept is known as
A. Bernoullis Energy Principles B. Fluid theorem C. Pascals theorem D. Hydraulic theorem
2. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of
the system.
A. Total mechanical energy B. Total potential energy C. Total kinetic energy D. Total momentum
3. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite
directions are superimposed,
A. the phase difference is always zero B. distractive waves are produced C. standing waves are produced D. constructive interference always results to zero
4. According to this law, The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude
of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them.
A. Law of Universal Gravitation B. Newtons Law C. Inverse Square Law
D. Coulombs Law
5. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per
square meter.
A. Illuminance B. Luminance C. Luminous Intensity D. Radiance
6. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as
A. Pascals Principle B. Bernoullis Theorem C. Ideal Fluid Principle D. Archimedes Principle
7. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is
A. condensation B. cold fusion C. latent heat of fusion D. solid fusion
8. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure
A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure C. is less than the atmospheric pressure D. can have any value
9. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly
1500oC?
A. Gas thermometer B. Platinum resistance thermometer C. Thermo couple thermometer D. Mercury thermometer
10. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is
A. Mechanical energy B. Elastic potential energy C. Internal energy D. Kinetic energy
11. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively,
which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to
freeze a liquid?
A. Q = -mif B. Q = -miv C. Q = mif D. Q = miv
12. Which of the following is true? The density of water
A. Is maximum at 4oC B. Decreases as the temperature is increased C. Is minimum at 4oC D. Increases with temperature
13. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its
A. frequency decreases B. wavelength is increased C. frequency increases D. None of the above is true
14. Cohesion is the attraction between like
A. atom B. element C. compound D. molecule
15. The quality known as specific heat is based on:
A. the increase in temperature due to induction B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one
degree Celsius
D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead
16. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will
A. increase B. remain unaffected C. decrease D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
17. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases B. remains unaffected C. decreases D. Any of the above is possible
18. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?
A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. none of the above
19. When salt is added to water, its boiling point
A. increases B. decreases C. remains unaffected D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure
20. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?
A. The sound waves B. The
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